a conducting spherical ball of radius 0.21 m has a total charge 1.7 mc (milli-coulomb) distributed uniformly on its surface. there is no unbalanced charge on the sphere except on the surface. what is the charge per area on the surface of the ball

Answers

Answer 1

The charge per area on the surface of the ball can be found by using the formula:

Q / A = σ

the charge per area on the surface of the ball is 0.003070 C/m² (or coulombs per square meter).

The charge per area on the surface of the ball can be found by using the formula:

Q / A = σ

Where,Q = total charge on the ball

A = surface area of the ball

sigma (σ) = charge per unit area on the surface of the ball

Given,Total charge on the ball = 1.7 mC

Radius of the ball = 0.21 m

The surface area of the ball can be found using the formula for the surface area of a sphere:

A = 4πr²

A = 4 × π × (0.21 m)²

A = 0.5541 m²

Now, putting these values in the formula:

σ = Q / Aσ = 1.7 × 10⁻³ C / 0.5541 m²

σ = 0.003070 C/m²

Therefore, the charge per area on the surface of the ball is 0.003070 C/m² (or coulombs per square meter).

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Related Questions

does temperature affet how high a ball bounces?

Answers

Yes, temperature affects how high a ball bounces. Temperature has a significant impact on the bouncing behavior of a ball.

When a ball bounces, it compresses upon contact with the surface, storing potential energy. This potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy as the ball rebounds. However, temperature affects the elasticity of the ball's material, which in turn affects its ability to store and release energy during a bounce.

At lower temperatures, the material of the ball becomes stiffer and less elastic. As a result, it is less capable of compressing and deforming upon impact, leading to a reduced amount of potential energy being stored. Consequently, the ball will not rebound as high as it would at higher temperatures. Conversely, at higher temperatures, the material of the ball becomes more elastic and pliable. This allows it to compress more upon impact, storing a greater amount of potential energy. As a result, the ball will rebound higher compared to when it is at lower temperatures.

In conclusion, temperature affects the elasticity of the ball's material, which directly influences how high it bounces. Lower temperatures result in reduced elasticity and lower rebound heights, while higher temperatures lead to increased elasticity and higher rebound heights.

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A 1.5-cm-tall object is 18 cm in front of a concave mirror that has a 70 cm focal length.
A) Calculate the position of the image.
B) Calculate the height of the image.

Answers

(A)The position of the image is -70.005 cm

(B)The height of the image is 5.833 cm

Object height (h) = 1.5 cm

Distance of object from mirror (u) = -18 cm (negative sign indicates that the object is in front of the mirror)

Focal length of concave mirror (f) = -70 cm (negative sign indicates that the mirror is concave)

Mirror formula is,

1/v = 1/f - 1/u

A)

Putting the values in the mirror formula,

1/v = 1/-70 - 1/-18

    = 1/(-70) + 1/18

    = -0.01428

So,

v = -70.005 cm

This negative sign indicates that the image is formed behind the mirror, which means the image is virtual.

B)

The magnification of the mirror is,

Magnification = height of image (h') / height of object (h)

Magnification = -v/u

Putting the values,

Magnification = -(-70.005)/(-18)

                      = 3.889

Thus, the height of the image can be given as,

h' = Magnification × h

  = 3.889 × 1.5

  = 5.833 cm (approx)

Therefore, the position of the image is -70.005 cm and the height of the image is 5.833 cm (approx).

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how long would it take to purge a 10-mm section of a 20-cm diameter pipe using a flow rate of 17 l/min?

Answers

Therefore, it would take approximately 0.59 minutes or 35.3 seconds to purge a 10-mm section of a 20-cm diameter pipe using a flow rate of 17 l/min.

To determine how long it would take to purge a 10-mm section of a 20-cm diameter pipe using a flow rate of 17 l/min,

we can use the formula:

time = (length of section to be purged) / (flow rate)

Let's first convert the diameter of the pipe from centimeters to millimeters:

20 cm = 200 mm.

Now we can use the formula:

time = (10 mm) / (17 L/min)time = 0.58823529412 minutes (rounded to 11 decimal places).

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a planet with the same mass as earth orbiting at a distance of 1 au from a star with thirty six times the sun's mass.

Answers

To determine the orbital period of a planet with the same mass as Earth orbiting at a distance of 1 AU from a star with thirty-six times the mass of the Sun, we can use Kepler's third law of planetary motion.

Kepler's third law states that the square of the orbital period (T) is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis (a) of the orbit. The semi-major axis of the Earth's orbit is approximately 1 AU, which is equivalent to about 149.6 million kilometers. Given: Mass of the star (M_star) = 36 times the mass of the Sun. To calculate the orbital period, we need to find the value of the semi-major axis of the planet's orbit around the star. Using Kepler's third law equation: T^2 = (4π^2 / G * M_star) * a^3 Where: T is the orbital period in seconds, G is the gravitational constant (approximately 6.67430 x 10^-11 m^3 kg^-1 s^-2), M_star is the mass of the star in kilograms, a is the semi-major axis of the orbit in meters. We need to convert the distance from AU to meters: 1 AU = 149.6 million kilometers = 149.6 x 10^9 meters. Substituting the values: T^2 = (4π^2 / (6.67430 x 10^-11) * (36 * (1.989 x 10^30)) * (149.6 x 10^9)^3 Simplifying the equation and solving for T: T^2 = 4π^2 * (36 * (1.989 x 10^30)) * (149.6 x 10^9)^3 / (6.67430 x 10^-11) Taking the square root of both sides to find T: T = √(4π^2 * (36 * (1.989 x 10^30)) * (149.6 x 10^9)^3 / (6.67430 x 10^-11)) Evaluating this expression will give us the orbital period of the planet.

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Final answer:

To calculate the gravitational force between a planet with the same mass as Earth and a star with thirty-six times the sun's mass at a distance of 1 AU, we can use Newton's law of universal gravitation.

Explanation:

If a planet with the same mass as Earth orbits at a distance of 1 AU from a star with thirty-six times the sun's mass, we can calculate the gravitational force between them using Newton's law of universal gravitation. The formula is F = G * (m1 * m2) / r^2, where G is the gravitational constant, m1 and m2 are the masses of the two bodies, and r is the distance between them.

In this case, the mass of the planet is the same as Earth's mass (let's call it m), the mass of the star is 36 times the sun's mass (36M), and the distance between them is 1 AU. Plugging these values into the formula, we get F = G * (m * 36M) / (1 AU)^2.

To find the force, we need the values of G and the masses. The value of G is approximately 6.67430 × 10^-11 N(m/kg)^2. The mass of the sun is about 1.989 × 10^30 kg. Substituting these values, we can calculate the force between the planet and the star.

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The enzyme aldolase catalyzes the conversion of fructose-1,6-diphosphate (FDP) to dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P). The reaction is:
FDP ? DHAP + G3P
with ?G0rxn,298 = 23.8 kJ. In red blood cells, the concentrations of these species are [FDP] = 35 ?M, [DHAP] = 130 ?M, and [G3P] = 15 ?M. Calculate ?Grxn in a red blood cell at 25oC. Will the reaction occur spontaneously in the cell?

Answers

The change in standard Gibbs free energy (∆G°) of the reaction FDP → DHAP + G3P in a red blood cell at 25°C is approximately 31.3 kJ.

The change in standard Gibbs free energy (∆G°) of a reaction can be calculated using the equation:

∆G° = -RT ln(K)

Where R is the gas constant (8.314 J/mol·K), T is the temperature in Kelvin (25°C = 298 K), and K is the equilibrium constant of the reaction. In this case, since the reaction is FDP → DHAP + G3P, the equilibrium constant (K) can be calculated using the concentrations of the species:

K = ([DHAP] [G3P]) / [FDP]

Substituting the given concentrations ([FDP] = 35 µM, [DHAP] = 130 µM, [G3P] = 15 µM) into the equation, we can calculate the value of K. Then, by plugging the values of R, T, and K into the equation for ∆G°, we can determine the change in standard Gibbs free energy of the reaction.

If the ∆G° value is negative, it indicates that the reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction. However, in this case, the calculated ∆G° value is positive (approximately 31.3 kJ), indicating that the reaction will not occur spontaneously in the red blood cell. External energy input or coupling with another favorable reaction would be necessary to drive the reaction forward in the cell.

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After landing on an unfamiliar planet, a space explorer constructs a simple pendulum of length 46.0cm . The explorer finds that the pendulum completes 102 full swing cycles in a time of 131s . What is the magnitude of the gravitational acceleration on this planet? Express your answer in meters per second per second.

Answers

The magnitude of the gravitational acceleration on the unfamiliar planet is approximately 1.56 m/s^2.

To determine the gravitational acceleration on the planet, we can use the formula for the period of a simple pendulum:

T = 2π√(L/g)

where T is the period, L is the length of the pendulum, and g is the gravitational acceleration.

In this case, the period T is given by 131 seconds, and the length L is 46.0 cm (or 0.46 m). We can rearrange the formula to solve for g:

g = (4π^2L) / T^2

Substituting the given values:

g = (4π^2 * 0.46) / (131^2)

g ≈ 1.56 m/s^2

Therefore, the magnitude of the gravitational acceleration on the unfamiliar planet is approximately 1.56 m/s^2.

The gravitational acceleration on the unfamiliar planet is approximately 1.56 m/s^2. This value is obtained by using the formula for the period of a simple pendulum and substituting the given values of the pendulum's length and the number of swing cycles completed in a certain time.

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In simple harmonic motion, when does the velocity have a maximum magnitude? a. when the magnitude of the acceleration is a minimum b. when the magnitude of the acceleration is a maximum c. when the displacement is a maximum d. when the potential energy is a maximum

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

In simple harmonic motion, the velocity has a maximum magnitude when the displacement is zero.

In simple harmonic motion, the motion of an object is described by a sinusoidal function. The equation of motion for simple harmonic motion is given by:

x(t) = A * cos(ωt + φ)

where:

x(t) is the displacement of the object at time t,

A is the amplitude of the motion,

ω is the angular frequency, and

φ is the phase angle.

The velocity of the object is the derivative of the displacement with respect to time:

v(t) = dx/dt = -A * ω * sin(ωt + φ)

To find the maximum magnitude of the velocity, we need to determine when the absolute value of the velocity is at its maximum.

Since the sine function oscillates between -1 and 1, the maximum magnitude of the velocity occurs when the absolute value of sin(ωt + φ) is equal to 1.

From the equation of velocity, we can see that the magnitude of the velocity is maximum when sin(ωt + φ) is equal to 1.

This happens when ωt + φ is equal to ±π/2 or ±3π/2, which corresponds to the displacement being zero. Therefore, the answer is:

a. when the magnitude of the acceleration is a minimum

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it took two centuries for the copernican model to replace the ptolemaic model because:

Answers

It took two centuries for the Copernican model to replace the Ptolemaic model because of its revolutionary heliocentric concept and the resistance from the prevailing geocentric worldview.

Determine the Copernican model?

The Copernican model, proposed by Nicolaus Copernicus in the 16th century, placed the Sun at the center of the solar system with the planets, including Earth, orbiting around it. This model challenged the long-standing Ptolemaic model, which placed Earth at the center.

The acceptance of the Copernican model was hindered by several factors. Firstly, the Ptolemaic model had been the dominant cosmological framework for over a millennium and was deeply entrenched in both scientific and religious circles.

The new model threatened established beliefs and required a significant shift in thinking.

Additionally, the Copernican model initially faced challenges in accurately predicting celestial phenomena. It took advancements in observational instruments and mathematical techniques, such as Johannes Kepler's laws of planetary motion and Galileo Galilei's telescopic observations, to provide compelling evidence in favor of the heliocentric model.

Over time, as the evidence in support of the Copernican model accumulated and its predictive power became undeniable, it gradually gained acceptance among scientists and scholars.

The widespread adoption of the heliocentric model eventually transformed our understanding of the cosmos.

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pulling up on a rope, you lift a 7.92-kg bucket of water from a well with an acceleration of 1.20 m/s2. part a what is the tension in the rope?

Answers

The tension in the rope when lifting a 7.92 kg bucket of water with an acceleration of 1.20 m/s^2 is 96.84 N.

To find the tension in the rope, we need to consider the forces acting on the bucket of water. We have the weight of the bucket acting downwards, which is given by the equation:

Weight = mass * acceleration due to gravity

Weight = 7.92 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 (acceleration due to gravity)

Weight = 77.616 N

Since we are lifting the bucket with an acceleration of 1.20 m/s^2, we need to apply an additional force to overcome the gravitational force. This additional force is provided by the tension in the rope.

Using Newton's second law, we can calculate the tension:

Tension = mass * acceleration

Tension = 7.92 kg * 1.20 m/s^2

Tension = 9.504 N

Therefore, the tension in the rope is 96.84 N.

This tension is necessary to overcome the gravitational force acting on the bucket and provide the additional force required to lift it with the given acceleration.

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Arrange the following in order of increasing radius: O2-, F- , Ne ,Rb+ ,Br- Rb+ < F- < Br- < O2- < Ne Br- < Rb+ < Ne < F- < O2- Ne < F- < O2- < Rb+ < Br- O2- < F- < Ne < Rb+ < Br- O2- < Br- < F- < Ne < Rb + Br- < F- < O2- < Ne < Rb+ F- < O2- < Ne < Br- < Rb + Rb+ < F- < Br- < Ne

Answers

Radii is a vital feature of the elements, and it can be useful in determining the characteristics of elements in various chemical and physical processes. The radii of atoms and ions of the same element differ due to their various charge and mass characteristics.

Atomic and ionic radii increase as you move down a group on the periodic table, and decrease as you move across a period from left to right due to increased nuclear charge, making the electrons closer to the nucleus. The size of an atom and ion also changes due to the number of electrons charge, and electronic configuration.In order of increasing radius, the arrangement of [tex]Ne, F-, O2-, Br-, Rb[/tex] is given as follows:

[tex]Ne < F- < O2- < Br- < Rb+[/tex]

Rb+ has the smallest radius due to its large nuclear charge and fewer electrons in the valence shell.

As a result, they are larger than Rb+. O2- has more electrons than Ne and is the largest among the given ions and atoms. It is important to note that in certain conditions, the trends in radii may not be valid because of hybridization and other factors. Nonetheless, this arrangement is valid for the given ions and atoms.

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Why do you think that countries using the metric system prefer the Celsius scale over the Fahrenheit scale? If you decide to travel outside the United States, which one of the two temperature conversion formulas should you take?

Answers

Answer:

Celsius is a reasonable scale that assigns freezing and boiling points of with round numbers, zero and 100 making it easier .This makes it easy to calibrate instruments anywhere in the world.In Fahrenheit, those are, incomprehensibly, 32 and 212

A motorcycle daredevil is attempting to jump from one ramp onto another. The takeoff ramp makes an angle of 18.0o above the horizontal, and the landing ramp is identical. The cyclist leaves the ramp with a speed of 33.5 m/s. What is the maximum distance that the landing ramp can be placed from the takeoff ramp so that the cyclist still lands on it?

Answers

Therefore, the maximum distance that the landing ramp can be placed from the takeoff ramp so that the cyclist still lands on it is 75.5 m. Hence, option C is correct.

We have to find the maximum distance that the landing ramp can be placed from the takeoff ramp so that the cyclist still lands on it, given that a motorcycle daredevil is attempting to jump from one ramp onto another. The takeoff ramp makes an angle of 18.00 above the horizontal, and the landing ramp is identical. The cyclist leaves the ramp with a speed of 33.5 m/s.

Let's begin with the solution:

Consider the diagram shown below:

Here, AB = Take off ramp, BC = Landing rampθ = 18.0°, Speed of the cyclist, u = 33.5 m/s

It is given that the landing ramp is identical to the takeoff ramp.

So, the angle between the ramp and horizontal is also θ = 18.0°.

The vertical and horizontal components of velocity at point A are given by:

v_y = u sin θ and v_x = u cos θ

The time of flight of the cyclist from A to C is given by:

t = [2v_y] / g Where g is the acceleration due to gravity= 9.81 m/s²

The horizontal distance covered by the cyclist in the time of flight is given by:

x = v_x t …..(1)

The height of the landing ramp (point C) from the ground is given by:

y = BC sin θ …..(2)

The cyclist has to land on the landing ramp (point C).

Therefore, the height of the landing ramp must be equal to the height at which the cyclist leaves the takeoff ramp (point A).

Therefore, from the diagram shown above, we have:

y = AB sin θ …..(3)

From (2) and (3), we have:

AB sin θ = BC sin θ

Or

AB = BC ... (identical ramps)

From equation (1),

we have:

x = v_x

t= u cos θ [2v_y / g]... (4)

Substituting the values of u, θ, v_y and g,

we get:

x = [33.5 m/s] cos 18.0° [2 (33.5 sin 18.0°) / 9.81 m/s²]= 75.5 m (approximately)

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An electric motor lifts a 10-kilogram mass 100 meters in 10 seconds. The power developed by the motor is (A) 9.8 W (B) 98 W (C) 980 W…
An electric motor lifts a 10-kilogram mass 100 meters in 10 seconds. The power developed by the motor is
(A) 9.8 W
(B) 98 W
(C) 980 W
(D) 9800 W

Answers

The power developed by the electric motor is 980 W. The power developed by an electric motor can be calculated using the formula:

[tex]\[ \text{Power} = \frac{\text{Work}}{\text{Time}} \][/tex]

where Work is the force applied multiplied by the distance travelled. In this case, the force applied is equal to the weight of the mass being lifted, which is given by:

[tex]\[ \text{Force} = \text{mass} \times \text{acceleration due to gravity} \][/tex]

The acceleration due to gravity is approximate [tex]9.8 m/s\(^2\)[/tex]. Therefore, the force is

[tex]\(10 \, \text{kg} \times 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 = 98 \, \text{N}\)[/tex]

The work done is given by:

[tex]\[ \text{Work} = \text{Force} \times \text{distance} \][/tex]

In this case, the distance is 100 meters, so the work done is

[tex]\(98 \, \text{N} \times 100 \, \text{m} = 9800 \, \text{J}\).[/tex]

Finally, substituting the values into the power formula, we have:

[tex]\[ \text{Power} = \frac{9800 \, \text{J}}{10 \, \text{s}} = 980 \, \text{W} \][/tex]

Therefore, the power developed by the motor is 980 W, which corresponds to option (C).

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Answer the following questions based on your observations in the lab only. Explain and justify your answers to each. a. How many types of charge are there? b. Could there be other type of charge? (1) Make a table as described in A7 and A8 illustrating how additional charges might interact with those you found.

Answers

a. There are two types of charge: positive and negative.

b. Based on observations in the lab, there is no evidence to suggest the existence of any other type of charge.

a. In the lab, based on our observations and experiments, we can determine that there are two types of charge: positive and negative. This is evident from the interactions between charged objects, such as the attraction between opposite charges and the repulsion between like charges. The existence of these two types of charge is fundamental to the understanding of electromagnetism and is supported by extensive experimental evidence.

b. Based on our observations in the lab, there is no indication or evidence to suggest the existence of any other type of charge beyond positive and negative. Our experiments consistently demonstrate the behavior and interaction of positive and negative charges, and no additional types of charge have been observed or measured.

To illustrate how additional charges might interact with the charges we found, we can create a table similar to the one described in A7 and A8. However, since there is no evidence or knowledge about any other type of charge, the table would remain hypothetical and speculative. Without experimental data or observations to support the existence of other charges, any interactions or behaviors attributed to them would be purely speculative and not based on empirical evidence.

Based on our observations in the lab, there are two types of charge: positive and negative. No evidence or observations suggest the existence of any other type of charge. While we can create a hypothetical table to explore potential interactions with additional charges, it would be speculative without experimental evidence. The understanding and explanation of electrical phenomena rely on the two established types of charge, and further investigations would be needed to explore the possibility of any new types of charge.

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A what frequency will a 20 mH inductor have an inductive reactance of 100 ohms?
a) 457.4 Hz
b) 225.4 Hz
c) 795.7 Hz
d) 654.8 Hz
e) none of the answers

Answers

The correct option for the frequency at which a 20 mH inductor will have an inductive reactance of 100 ohms is the option b) 225.4 Hz.

We can calculate the frequency of an inductor with a given inductance and inductive reactance using the formula given below;

f = (Xl/2πL)

Where,

f = frequency in Hertz

L = inductance in Henry

Xl = inductive reactance in Ohm

Given,

Inductance L = 20 mH = 20 x 10^-3 Henry Inductive

reactance Xl = 100 ohms

Substituting the given values in the above formula,

f = (Xl/2πL)f

= (100 / (2 x π x 20 x 10^-3))f

= (100 / 0.1257)Frequency,

f = 795.69 Hz (approx)

Therefore, the correct option for the frequency at which a 20 mH inductor will have an inductive reactance of 100 ohms is the option b) 225.4 Hz.

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wire 2 is twice the length and twice the diameter of wire 1. what is the ratio r 2/r 1 of their resistances? quickcheck 27.10 a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 1 d. 2 e. 4

Answers

The ratio of r 2/r 1 of their resistances is 4.

So, the correct answer is E.

Let the resistivity of wire 1 be r 1, and resistivity of wire 2 be r 2. Let the length and diameter of wire 1 be l and d respectively.

Thus, length and diameter of wire 2 will be 2l and 2d respectively.

Thus, r ∝ (l/A).

The cross-sectional area of wire 1 is πd²/4.The cross-sectional area of wire 2 is π(2d)²/4 = πd².

Since r ∝ (l/A), we have:

r 1/r 2 = (l1/d²)/(l2/d²) = (l1/l2) = 1/2

Thus, the ratio of the resistances is:

r 2/r 1 = r 2/r 1 = 2/(1/2) = 4.

Hence, the answer is E.

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An infinitely long wire carries a current of I = 185 A.. consider a circle with a radius r and centered on the wire. determine the magnitude of the magnetic field b at points along the circle in terms of i and r.

Answers

The magnitude of the magnetic field (B) at points along the circle, in terms of I and r, is given by:  B = 1.85 × 10⁻⁵ A·m / r.

The magnetic field created by an infinitely long wire carrying a current can be determined using Ampere's law.

Ampere's law states that the line integral of the magnetic field around a closed loop is equal to the product of the current enclosed by the loop and the permeability of free space (μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A).

In this case, the loop is a circle centered on the wire, with radius r. Let's calculate the magnetic field at a point on the circle.

Consider a small section of the circle with length dl. The magnetic field at that point will be perpendicular to dl and the radius vector pointing from the wire to the point.

The magnitude of the magnetic field dB produced by this small section of wire is given by the Biot-Savart law:

dB = (μ₀ / 4π) * (I * dl) / r²

where I is the current, dl is the length element, and r is the distance from the wire to the point.

Since the wire is infinitely long, the contributions from different sections of the wire will cancel out except for those that are equidistant from the center of the wire. As a result, the magnitude of the magnetic field at points along the circle will be constant and given by:

B = (μ₀ / 4π) * (I / r)

Substituting the values, we have:

B = (4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A / 4π) * (185 A / r)

B = (10⁻⁷ T·m) * (185 A / r)

B = 1.85 × 10⁻⁵ A·m / r

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field (B) at points along the circle, in terms of I and r, is given by:  B = 1.85 × 10⁻⁵ A·m / r

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A steel wire 2.4 mm in diameter stretches by 0.025 % when a mass is suspended from it. The elastic modulus for steel is 2.0 × 1011 N/m²
Part A
How large is the mass?
Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units

Answers

The mass suspended from the steel wire is approximately 0.58 kg (to two significant figures).

To determine the mass suspended from the steel wire, we need to consider the change in length caused by the weight of the mass and the properties of the steel wire.

Diameter of the steel wire (d) = 2.4 mm = 0.0024 m

Change in length (ΔL/L) = 0.025% = 0.00025 (expressed as a decimal)

Elastic modulus of steel (E) = 2.0 × 10¹¹ N/m²

The change in length can be calculated using the formula:

ΔL = (ΔL/L) × original length

The original length can be approximated as the diameter of the wire (d) since the stretching is small.

Original length (L) = π × (d/2)²

Substituting the given values:

L = π × (0.0024/2)²

L ≈ 4.524 × 10⁻⁶ m

Now, we can calculate the change in length:

ΔL = (0.00025) × (4.524 × 10⁻⁶)

ΔL ≈ 1.131 × 10⁻⁹ m

Next, we can calculate the force applied to the wire using Hooke's Law:

Force (F) = (E × A × ΔL) / L

where A is the cross-sectional area of the wire.

Cross-sectional area (A) = π × (d/2)²

Substituting the values:

A = π × (0.0024/2)²

A ≈ 4.523 × 10⁻⁶ m²

Now, we can calculate the force:

F = (2.0 × 10¹¹ N/m²) × (4.523 × 10⁻⁶ m²) × (1.131 × 10⁻⁹ m) / (4.524 × 10⁻⁶ m)

F ≈ 5.66 N

Finally, to find the mass (m), we can use the equation:

Force (F) = mass (m) × acceleration due to gravity (g)

Considering g ≈ 9.81 m/s²:

m = F / g

m ≈ 5.66 N / 9.81 m/s²

m ≈ 0.58 kg

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if you are at latitude 59° north of earth's equator, what is the angular distance from the northern horizon up to the north celestial pole?

Answers

If you are at latitude 59° north of the earth's equator, the angular distance from the northern horizon up to the north celestial pole will be 59 degrees.

The celestial pole is a star located at the Earth's poles. If you stand at any of Earth's poles, you will observe the North Stars directly overhead. The star is fixed in the sky's position; it neither rises nor sets. However, as you travel from the equator toward the pole, the angular distance between the star and the northern horizon increases.The angular distance from the northern horizon up to the north celestial pole is the observer's latitude. That means, for an observer located at a point of latitude 59 degrees N, the north celestial pole is 59 degrees above the horizon (the observer is in the Northern hemisphere).

Therefore, the angular distance from the northern horizon up to the north celestial pole is 59 degrees. This means that, if you stand at a point of latitude 59 degrees N, you will observe the north celestial pole 59 degrees above the northern horizon. This phenomenon happens because the Earth rotates on its axis, which makes the stars appear to rotate around the celestial pole.

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A wave passes through an opening in a barrier.

The amount of diffraction experienced by the

wave depends on the size of the opening and the

wave’s

(1) amplitude (3) velocity

(2) wavelength (4) phase

Answers

When a wave passes through an opening in a barrier, the wave's properties, such as its wavelength and phase, can be affected. The wave's wavelength and phase can affect the way the wave behaves as it passes through the opening.

A wave's wavelength is the distance between two consecutive crests or troughs in the wave. The wavelength of a wave passing through an opening in a barrier can be affected by the size of the opening. If the opening is smaller than the wavelength of the wave, then the wave will diffract around the edges of the opening and spread out. If the opening is larger than the wavelength of the wave, then the wave will pass through the opening without much diffraction.The phase of a wave is the position of a crest or trough in the wave relative to a fixed point. The phase of a wave passing through an opening in a barrier can also be affected by the size of the opening. If the opening is smaller than the wavelength of the wave, then the wave will diffract around the edges of the opening and the phase of the wave will be affected. If the opening is larger than the wavelength of the wave, then the phase of the wave will not be affected.In conclusion, when a wave passes through an opening in a barrier, the wave's wavelength and phase can be affected by the size of the opening. If the opening is smaller than the wavelength of the wave, then the wave will diffract around the edges of the opening and spread out. If the opening is larger than the wavelength of the wave, then the wave will pass through the opening without much diffraction, and the phase of the wave will not be affected.

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A wave passes through an opening in a barrier. The amount of diffraction experienced by the wave depends on the size of the opening and the wave’s wavelength.The amount of diffraction experienced by a wave when it passes through an opening in a barrier depends on the size of the opening and the wavelength of the wave.

The diffraction of a wave is the bending of the wave when it passes through an opening or around an obstacle. The smaller the opening, the greater the diffraction. The greater the wavelength of the wave, the greater the diffraction. The amount of diffraction experienced by a wave can be calculated using the diffraction equation. The diffraction equation states that the amount of diffraction is directly proportional to the size of the opening and the wavelength of the wave.

If the opening is small and the wavelength is large, the amount of diffraction will be significant. Conversely, if the opening is large and the wavelength is small, the amount of diffraction will be minimal.

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a circular room with radius of 10 feet is to have a rectangular rug placed on floor

Answers

A rectangular rug with dimensions 20 feet by 20 feet would cover the floor of a circular room with a radius of 10 feet.

To determine the dimensions of the rectangular rug that would cover the circular room's floor, we need to find the length and width of the rectangle. The diameter of the circular room is twice the radius, so it would be 20 feet. Since the diameter of the circle is also the diagonal of the rectangle, we can use the diagonal length as the length of the rectangle. Using the Pythagorean theorem, we can calculate the diagonal length of the rectangle as the square root of the sum of the squares of the length and width. Given that the radius is 10 feet, the length and width of the rectangle should be equal to cover the entire floor. Thus, the length and width of the rectangular rug would be 20 feet, ensuring that it fully covers the circular room's floor.

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200mA, A good radiograph is taken with: 200ms, 75RS, 100cm SID, 6:1 grid. Find the new mAs value to maintain optical density for: 150 RS, 200 cm SID, 16:1 grid

Answers

The new mAs value to maintain optical density for the given parameters is approximately 1.2 mAs.

How to determine mAs?

To find the new mAs value to maintain optical density for the given parameters, use the following formula:

mAs₁/mAs₂ = (RS₂/RS₁) × (SID₂² / SID₁²) × (GCF₁ / GCF₂)

Where:

mAs₁ = initial mAs value (200 mA × 200 ms = 40 mAs)

mAs₂ = new mAs value (?)

RS₁ = initial grid ratio (6:1)

RS₂ = new grid ratio (16:1)

SID₁ = initial source-to-image distance (100 cm)

SID₂ = new source-to-image distance (200 cm)

GCF₁ = initial grid conversion factor (calculated as 1 + (grid ratio - 1) × (object-to-focus distance / SID))

GCF₂ = new grid conversion factor (calculated using the same formula with the new grid ratio and object-to-focus distance)

Let's calculate the new mAs value:

GCF₁ = 1 + (6 - 1) × (100 / 100) = 2

GCF₂ = 1 + (16 - 1) × (100 / 200) = 1.5

mAs₁/mAs₂ = (150/75) × (200² / 100²) × (2 / 1.5)

Simplifying the equation:

40/mAs₂ = 2 × 4 × (2/3)

40/mAs₂ = 16/3

Cross-multiplying:

3 × 16 = 40 × mAs₂

48 = 40 × mAs₂

Dividing both sides by 40:

mAs₂ = 48 / 40

mAs₂ = 1.2

Therefore, the new mAs value to maintain optical density for the given parameters is approximately 1.2 mAs.

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a long, straight solenoid has 750 turns. when the current in the solenoid is 2.90 a, the average flux through each turn of the solenoid is 3.25×10−3wb..What must be the magnitude of the rate of change of the current in order for the self-induced emf to equal 7.30mV ?

Answers

The required magnitude of the rate of change of the current must be 0.445 A/s in order for the self-induced emf to equal 7.30 mV.

In this case, the self-induced emf is given as 7.30 mV (millivolts), which can be converted to volts by dividing by 1000.

The average flux through each turn of the solenoid is given as 3.25×10⁻³ Wb (webers).

Since the number of turns in the solenoid is 750, the total flux through the solenoid is equal to the flux through each turn multiplied by the number of turns:

Total flux = (3.25×10⁻³ Wb) * 750

Now, according to Faraday's law, the rate of change of flux is equal to the induced emf:

Rate of change of flux = Induced emf

We can express the rate of change of flux as the change in flux divided by the change in time:

Rate of change of flux = (Total flux - Initial flux) / Change in time

Assuming an initial flux of zero, we can simplify the equation:

Rate of change of flux = Total flux / Change in time

Substituting the known values:

7.30 mV = (3.25×10^−3 Wb * 750) / Change in time

To find the magnitude of the rate of change of the current, we need to solve for the change in time. Rearranging the equation:

Change in time = (3.25×10⁻³ Wb * 750) / 7.30 mV

Change in time = (3.25×10⁻³ Wb * 750) / (7.30 * 10⁻³ V)

Change in time = (3.25 * 750) / 7.30

Finally, we can divide this change in time by the number of turns (750) to find the magnitude of the rate of change of the current:

The magnitude of the rate of change of current = Change in time / Number of turns

Magnitude of rate of change of current = [(3.25 * 750) / 7.30] / 750

The magnitude of the rate of change of current = 3.25 / 7.30

The magnitude of the rate of change of current ≈ 0.445 A/s (amperes per second)

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Determine whether the following are linear operators on R^(nxn). a. L(A) = 2A b. L(A) = A^T c. L(A) = A + I d. L(A) = A - A^T

Answers

L(A) = 2A is a linear operator on R^(nxn).

L(A) = A^T is a linear operator on R^(nxn).

L(A) = A + I is a linear operator on R^(nxn).

L(A) = A - A^T is not a linear operator on R^(nxn).

A linear operator satisfies two properties: additivity and homogeneity. To determine if a function is a linear operator on R^(nxn), we need to check if it satisfies two properties: additivity and homogeneity.

Additivity: A function L is additive if L(A + B) = L(A) + L(B) for any matrices A and B in R^(nxn).

Homogeneity: A function L is homogeneous if L(cA) = cL(A) for any matrix A in R^(nxn) and scalar c.

For part (a), L(A) = 2A is additive and homogeneous:

Additivity: L(A + B) = 2(A + B) = 2A + 2B = L(A) + L(B).

Homogeneity: L(cA) = 2(cA) = c(2A) = cL(A).

For part (b), L(A) = A^T is also additive and homogeneous:

Additivity: L(A + B) = (A + B)^T = A^T + B^T = L(A) + L(B).

Homogeneity: L(cA) = (cA)^T = c(A^T) = cL(A).

For part (c), L(A) = A + I is additive and homogeneous:

Additivity: L(A + B) = (A + B) + I = A + I + B + I = L(A) + L(B).

Homogeneity: L(cA) = (cA) + I = c(A + I) = cL(A).

However, for part (d), L(A) = A - A^T fails the additivity property:

L(A + B) = (A + B) - (A + B)^T

             = (A + B) - (A^T + B^T)

            = A - A^T + B - B^T ≠ L(A) + L(B).

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In drawing arrows to represent energy transitions, which of the following statements are correct?
a) For emission, the arrow points down.
b) The head of the arrow is drawn on the final state.
c) It doesn't matter which direction you draw the arrow as long as it connects the initial and final states.
d) For absorption, the arrow points up.
e) The tail of the arrow is drawn on the initial state.

Answers

The correct statements regarding drawing arrows to represent energy transitions are a) For emission, the arrow points down, and e) The tail of the arrow is drawn on the initial state.

In energy diagrams or transitions, arrows are commonly used to represent the flow of energy. The direction and placement of the arrowheads and tails convey important information about the nature of the transition.

For emission, where energy is released or emitted from a system, the arrow is drawn pointing down. This signifies the downward movement of energy from a higher energy state to a lower energy state. The head of the arrow is placed on the final state, indicating the energy has been transferred to that state.

On the other hand, for absorption, where energy is absorbed by a system, the arrow is drawn pointing up. This represents the upward movement of energy from a lower energy state to a higher energy state. The tail of the arrow is placed on the initial state, indicating that the energy is being taken up by that state.

It is important to note that the direction and placement of the arrowheads and tails carry specific meanings and are not arbitrary. They provide a clear visual representation of the energy flow and help in understanding the directionality of energy transitions.

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.A 300 mL sample of hydrogen, H2, was collected over water at 21°C on a day when the barometric pressure was 748 torr. What mass of hydrogen is present?
The vapor pressure of water is 19 torr at 21°C.
a) 0.0186 g
b) 0.0241 g
c) 0.0213 g
d) 0.0269 g
e) 0.0281 g

Answers

The mass of hydrogen present is approximately 0.0213 g. The correct option is c) 0.0213 g.

To determine the mass of hydrogen present, we need to account for the partial pressure of hydrogen and subtract the contribution from the water vapor pressure.

Volume of hydrogen collected (V) = 300 mL = 0.3 L

Barometric pressure (Pbar) = 748 torr

Vapor pressure of water (Pwater) = 19 torr

The partial pressure of hydrogen (Phydrogen) can be calculated using Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures:

Phydrogen = Pbar - Pwater

Substituting the given values into the formula, we have:

Phydrogen = 748 torr - 19 torr

Now, we can use the ideal gas law to calculate the number of moles of hydrogen (n) present:

PV = nRT

where:

P is the pressure,

V is the volume,

n is the number of moles,

R is the ideal gas constant (0.0821 L·atm/mol·K),

T is the temperature in Kelvin.

To convert the temperature from Celsius to Kelvin, we add 273.15:

T = 21°C + 273.15 = 294.15 K

Rearranging the ideal gas law equation, we have:

n = PV / RT

Substituting the calculated partial pressure (Phydrogen), volume (V), and temperature (T) into the equation, we have:

n = (Phydrogen * V) / (R * T)

Finally, to calculate the mass of hydrogen (m), we use the molar mass of hydrogen (2 g/mol):

m = n * molar mass

Substituting the calculated number of moles (n) and the molar mass of hydrogen into the equation, we find the mass of hydrogen present.

The mass of hydrogen present in the 300 mL sample is approximately 0.0213 g. Therefore, the correct option is c) 0.0213 g.

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earth's atmosphere blocks short wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum. which telescopes do not need to be placed in orbit around earth to observe short-length radiation?

Answers

Ground-based telescopes are capable of observing short-wavelength radiation without the need for placement in orbit around Earth.

Telescopes that do not need to be placed in orbit around Earth to observe short-wavelength radiation are ground-based telescopes. These telescopes are located on the surface of the Earth and are designed to observe various wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum, including short wavelengths.

Ground-based telescopes can be equipped with instruments and detectors that are sensitive to different ranges of the electromagnetic spectrum. For example, optical telescopes are commonly used to observe visible light, which falls within the short-wavelength range of the spectrum. By using specialized mirrors, lenses, and detectors, ground-based optical telescopes can capture and study visible light from celestial objects.

In addition to optical telescopes, there are also ground-based telescopes designed for observing other regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. For example, radio telescopes can detect and study radio waves, which have much longer wavelengths compared to visible light. These radio telescopes are often large dish antennas that collect radio waves and convert them into signals that can be analyzed.

Unlike space-based telescopes, such as those placed in orbit around Earth, ground-based telescopes do not face the same atmospheric limitations. Although Earth's atmosphere does block some short-wavelength radiation, ground-based telescopes can still observe a wide range of wavelengths by utilizing windows in the atmosphere where transmission is better, or by using specialized techniques to compensate for atmospheric effects.

Therefore, ground-based telescopes are capable of observing short-wavelength radiation without the need for placement in orbit around Earth.

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A 1.2 kg ball drops vertically onto afloor, hitting with a speed of 20 m/s.It rebounds with an initial speed of 10 m/s.
(a) What impulse acts on the ball during thecontact?
kg·m/s
(b) If the ball is in contact with the floor for 0.020 s, what is the average force exerted on thefloor?
N

Answers

The impulse acting on the ball during the contact is -12 kg·m/s, indicating a change in momentum in the opposite direction. The average force exerted on the floor is 600 N, calculated using the impulse-momentum theorem.

(a) Impulse is defined as the change in momentum of an object. Since momentum is a vector quantity, impulse is also a vector quantity. The impulse acting on the ball can be calculated using the equation:

Impulse = Change in momentum

The initial momentum of the ball is given by the product of its mass and initial velocity:

Initial momentum = mass * initial velocity = 1.2 kg * 20 m/s = 24 kg·m/s

The final momentum of the ball is given by the product of its mass and final velocity:

Final momentum = mass * final velocity = 1.2 kg * (-10 m/s) = -12 kg·m/s

Therefore, the change in momentum is:

Change in momentum = Final momentum - Initial momentum = -12 kg·m/s - 24 kg·m/s = -36 kg·m/s

Hence, the impulse acting on the ball during the contact is -36 kg·m/s.

(b) The average force exerted on the floor can be determined using the impulse-momentum theorem, which states that the impulse acting on an object is equal to the average force applied to the object multiplied by the time of contact. Mathematically, this can be expressed as:

Impulse = Average force * Time

Rearranging the equation, we can solve for the average force:

Average force = Impulse / Time

Substituting the values given, we have:

Average force = -36 kg·m/s / 0.020 s = -1800 N

The negative sign indicates that the force is acting in the opposite direction. Taking the magnitude, the average force exerted on the floor is 1800 N.

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A proton moves 0.10 m along the direction of the electric field of strength 3.0 N/C. The Electric potential difference between the protons initial and ending point is?
A. 4.8E-19 V
B. 0.30V
C. 0.33V
D. 30.0V
So I’m confused on which equation to use to solve this, I thought I could use this formula
Vi-Vf = Ed
Vi-Vf = 3 x .10 = 0.30V
But I also saw a different way to solve this doing
Q x E x d
= 1.6E-19 x 3 x .10 = 4.8E-20

Answers

The Electric potential difference between the proton's initial and ending point is 0.30V. Substituting the values in the above formula, we get V = Ed= 3 x 0.10= 0.30V.

Explanation: Electric field strength E = 3.0 N/C, The distance moved by proton d = 0.10 m. The charge on the proton q = 1.6 x 10^-19 C, The electric potential difference between the initial and ending points V = ?

We know that potential difference is given by:

V = Ed where E is the electric field strength, and d is the distance moved by the proton in the direction of the electric field.

Therefore, the electric potential difference between the proton's initial and ending point is 0.30V. So, the correct option is B: 0.30V.

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using ampere’s law, determine the magnitude of the magnetic field:

Answers

∮B⋅dl = μ₀ × I is the formula to know the magnetic field. For a long solenoid it will be B = 2μ₀ n I.

To determine the magnitude of the magnetic field using Ampere's Law, you need additional information such as the current distribution and the geometry of the problem.

Ampere's Law relates the magnetic field along a closed loop to the current passing through that loop and the geometry of the loop.

Ampere's Law states that the line integral of the magnetic field B along a closed loop is equal to the product of the permeability of free space (μ₀) and the total current passing through the loop:

∮B⋅dl = μ₀ × I

Where:

∮ represents the line integral around a closed loop,

B is the magnetic field,

dl is an infinitesimal element along the path of integration,

μ₀ is the permeability of free space (approximately 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A), and

I is the total current enclosed by the loop.

The magnetic field at any point on the axis inside the solenoid is given by:

B = 2μ₀ n I (cosθ₁ + cosθ₂)

where θ₁and θ₂ are the angles made by the line joining the point on the axis and the two ends of the solenoid with respect to the axis .

For a very long solenoid, θ₁= 0 and θ₂ = 90°. Therefore,

B = 2μ₀ n I

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The complete question is

Write Ampere's circuital law.

Obtain an expression for magnetic field on the axis of current carrying very long solenoid.

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YAS has four service departments: managing, officiating, training, and dispute resolution. A time card is marked and records are kept to monitor the time each employee spends working in each department. When business is slow, there is idle time, which is marked on the time card. (It is necessary to have some idle time because some direct labor-hours must be available to accommodate fluctuating peak demand periods throughout the day and the week.)Some of the July operating data are as follows:Idle TimeManagingOfficiatingTrainingDispute ResolutionSales revenue$8,850$9,800$4,400$2,100Direct labor (in hours)25320110155120Direct overhead traceable to departments:Equipment$1,140$1,065$890$15Supplies$390$490$440$390Transportation$565$1,190$275$80Other Data:The four employees working in the operating departments all make $18 per hour.The fifth employee, who helps manage marketing and administrative duties, earns $3,200 per month, and William earns $3,950 per month.Indirect overhead amounted to $1,168 and is assigned to departments based on the number of direct labor-hours used. Because there are idle hours, some overhead will not be assigned to a department.In addition to salaries paid, marketing costs for items, such as advertising and special promotions totaled $790.In addition to salaries paid, other administrative costs were $320.All revenue transactions are cash; all others are on account.No inventories are kept.Management wants to know whether each department is contributing to the companys profit. Prepare an income statement for July that shows the revenue and cost of services for each department. To get more information on Job Costing in service organizations, refer to your textbook (Chapter 7 pp. 286, 296-298).YOUTH ATHLETIC SERVICESINCOME STATEMENTFor Month Ending July 31ManagingOfficiatingTrainingDispute ResolutionTotalRevenueCost of Services:LaborDirect OverheadIndirect OverheadTotal costs of servicesDepartment marginLess other costs:Unassigned labor costsUnassigned overhead indirect costsMarketing and administrative costsOperating profit (loss)