Answer:
1. The cells which are dead in the plants are called cork cells or phellem. The chemical content which is present in the walls of cork cells is suberin which makes the water and gases of the cells impermeable. The chemical layer of suberin forms a barrier for the movement of water and solute molecules. It also protects the plants against infection by various microorganisms and heat exposure.
2. Suberin is the component that is present in the cork cells. The internal tissues prevent the evaporation of cork cells. At the time of maturity, the cork cells become dead and replace the epidermis layer of the stem or root with the outer boundary. The suberin does not allow the water and gases to go outside of the cork cells. It is overall protecting cork cells that are present on the bark of trees.
Explanation:
I really need help with Biology 102 ASAP!!!! but it's due date: Apr 17, 2023 at 11:59 PM EDT
Question 7
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortisol, and cortisone are hormones produced by the adrenal gland which is a small gland located on top of the kidneys and released in response to stress.
Epinephrine is a hormone that released in response to acute stress which results in increase of heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration. Norepinephrine is also involved in the stress response and regulates blood pressure and heart rate.
Cortisol is a hormone that released in response to stress and increase blood sugar levels and regulate the immune response. Cortisone is converted to cortisol in the body and has similar effects on metabolism and the immune system.
Thus, these hormones are produced by the adrenal gland and help to regulate metabolism, blood pressure, and the immune response of the body and released in response to stress.
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A cell undergoing meiosis has four pairs of homologous chromosomes. How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible within the daughter cells that form? (Do not consider crossing over in your answer.)
2
4
8
16
Answer:
The correct answer is 16
Explanation:
During meiosis, homologous chromosomes, which are chromosome pairs that contain similar genetic information from both the mother and father, undergo segregation and independent assortment. This means that each daughter cell formed during meiosis receives one chromosome from each homologous pair, resulting in different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes.
Since there are four pairs of homologous chromosomes in this scenario, the number of possible combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be calculated using the formula 2^n, where n is the number of homologous chromosome pairs. In this case, 2^4 equals 16, which means that there are 16 different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes possible in the daughter cells that form during meiosis.
why should granaries should be fumigated before storing grains
Before storing grains, granaries should be fumigated to protect the grains from pollutants and pests. In order to get rid of insects, parasites, and other pests that can infest grains and other stored food goods, fumigation is the technique of releasing a gas or vaporised pesticide in a closed environment.
Additionally, bacterial, fungal, and other germs that might contaminate and destroy food can be removed through fumigation. Because it can stop the spread of impurities and pests that could seriously harm stored grains, fumigation is a crucial stage in the process of preserving grains.
For instance, pests like moths, weevils, and beetles can infest and devour grains that have been kept, causing a considerable loss in production and quality. Moreover, fungus spores can cause spoilage.
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Before storing grains, granaries should be fumigated to protect the grains from pollutants and pests. In order to get rid of insects, parasites, and other pests that can infest grains and other stored food goods, fumigation is the technique of releasing a gas or vaporised pesticide in a closed environment.
Additionally, bacterial, fungal, and other germs that might contaminate and destroy food can be removed through fumigation. Because it can stop the spread of impurities and pests that could seriously harm stored grains, fumigation is a crucial stage in the process of preserving grains.
For instance, pests like moths, weevils, and beetles can infest and devour grains that have been kept, causing a considerable loss in production and quality. Moreover, fungus spores can cause spoilage.
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Any help would be appreciated:
Study the Unit's content and then using your own words, 1a) give a comprehensive explanation of what you learnt from each section of this unit: Chap 11-Nervous Tissue (Neurons & Neuroglia cells), 12-CNS (Spinal cord & Brain), 13-PNS (Cranial & spinal nerves and Ganglion), 14-ANS & 15-Special Senses. 1b) Explain how these chapters are interrelated (minimum of 1800words)
1a)
Chap 11 - Nervous tissue discusses the two main types of cells found in the nervous system, neurons and neuroglia. It explains the structure and function of each type of cell and how they work together to transmit and process information.
Chap 12 - CNS discusses the central nervous system, which is made up of the brain and spinal cord. It explains the structure and function of each part of the CNS and how they work together to receive and process sensory information and send motor commands.
Chap 13 - PNS discusses the peripheral nervous system, which consists of the cranial and spinal nerves and ganglia. It explains how these nerves connect the CNS to the rest of the body and how they transmit information between the brain and body.
Chap 14 - ANS discusses the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiration. It explains the structure and function of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS and their effects on the body.
Chap 15 - Special senses discusses the sensory organs that allow us to see, hear, taste, smell, and feel. It explains the anatomy and physiology of each sense and how they work together to provide us with a complete sensory experience.
1b)
The chapters in this unit are interrelated in that they all describe different aspects of the nervous system and how it functions to control the body's processes. Chap 11 lays the foundation for understanding the nervous system by discussing the basic structure and function of neurons and neuroglia. This knowledge is built upon in Chap 12, which describes the structure and function of the CNS, including the brain and spinal cord, which receive and process sensory information and send motor commands.
Chap 13 builds on this by describing the PNS, which connects the CNS to the rest of the body and transmits information between the brain and body. The ANS, discussed in Chap 14, is a division of the PNS that controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiration.
Finally, Chap 15 describes the special senses, which are sensory organs that allow us to see, hear, taste, smell, and feel. These senses rely on the nervous system to transmit and process sensory information, which is then used to create a complete sensory experience.
Overall, the chapters in this unit provide a comprehensive overview of the nervous system and how it functions to control the body's processes. Each chapter builds on the knowledge gained in the previous chapter, resulting in a detailed understanding of the complex workings of the nervous system.
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List the methods by which spores may be released and dispersed from fruiting bodies.
Answer:
Explanation:
Spores can be released and dispersed from fruiting bodies through various methods including:
Passive dispersion - In this method, spores are simply released and dispersed by the movement of air currents, rain or water.
Ballistospores - In this method, the spores are forcefully discharged from the fruiting body by the rapid displacement of a fluid droplet.
Wind - In this method, spores are carried by wind currents, and some fungi produce spores with specialized structures that help them float through the air.
Water - In this method, spores are carried by water currents, and some fungi produce spores with specialized structures that help them float on the surface of the water.
Animal dispersal - Some fungi produce spores with sticky or barbed surfaces that attach to the fur, feathers, or bodies of animals, which then carry the spores to new locations.
Explosive discharge - In this method, the spores are forcibly ejected from the fruiting body through a sudden release of pressure, similar to how a seed pod bursts open. This method is used by some fungi in the genus Pilobolus.
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I really need help with Biology 102 ASAP!!!! but it's due date: Apr 26, 2023 at 11:59 PM EDT
Question 4
Answer: 1. Pituitary hormones that act on other endocrine glands:
PRL (Prolactin)
ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)
FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (Luteinizing hormone)
TSH (Thyroid-stimulating hormone)
2. Pituitary hormones that act outside the endocrine system:
Oxytocin
GH (Growth hormone)
ADH (Antidiuretic hormone)
Explanation: hope it helps :)
Defend the following statement: The body's response to high elevations is an excellent example of homeostasis.
The body's response to high elevations is a great example of homeostasis because it shows how the body can maintain stable internal conditions despite changes in the external environment by initiating various physiological responses.
What is Homeostasis?Homeostasis is the process by which the body maintains a stable internal environment despite changes in the external environment. When we go to high elevations, the air pressure decreases, which causes a reduction in the partial pressure of oxygen. This change in the external environment can have significant effects on the body, such as hypoxia or altitude sickness.
To maintain homeostasis, the body initiates several physiological responses to cope with the decrease in oxygen availability at high elevations. These responses include increased respiration, increased heart rate, and increased production of red blood cells.
All of these responses work together to maintain the body's oxygen supply and prevent hypoxia, which is a state of insufficient oxygen supply to the tissues. By maintaining adequate oxygenation, the body can function normally despite the change in the external environment. Therefore, the body's response to high elevations is a great example of homeostasis.
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What would you expect to happen if Jane continues to eat as she has been, for her long-term future, without making any changes to her diet.
If Jane continues to eat as she has been, adhering to a balanced diet she is likely to experience positive health outcomes in the long term with a reduced risk of chronic diseases such as heart disease, stroke, and diabetes.
A diet rich in fruits and vegetables provides essential vitamins, minerals, and fiber that support immune function and reduce the risk of certain cancers. Proteins and dairy products provide vital nutrients for muscle growth and repair, bone health, and immune function.
Whole grains and starches provide energy and fiber, while limited oils and fats help keep cholesterol levels in check. Drinking 8 glasses of water a day promotes proper hydration, which is essential for optimal health. In conclusion, Jane's commitment to a healthy diet and lifestyle is likely to support her long-term health and well-being.
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The complete question is:
When Jane is filling her plate in the cafeteria she makes sure that half of it is covered in fruits & vegetables, another quarter of it has foods in the protein & dairy group (which includes all animal products), and the last quarter of her plate has brown whole grains and starches. She also uses a small number of oils & fats and no added sugars to make sure that her lunch is part of a nutritious diet. In addition to the food she eats, Jane makes sure to drink 8 glasses of water every day to maintain health.
What would you expect to happen if Jane continues to eat as she has been, for her long-term future, without making any changes to her diet?
Peahens prefer to mate with peacocks that have the brightest and largest tail displays. The peacock’s tail is a disadvantage to the males, because it is large and cumbersome and hinders them from escaping from predators. Given these facts, why isn’t the peacock’s tail selected against by natural selection?
The peacock's tail is not selected against by natural selection because the benefits of being chosen as a mate by a peahen outweigh the costs of the cumbersome tail.
Although the peacock's tail may be a disadvantage in terms of avoiding predators, it confers a significant advantage in terms of attracting mates. Peahens are more likely to choose males with bright and large tail displays, and therefore, males with such displays are more likely to reproduce and pass on their genes to the next generation.
This is an example of sexual selection, a type of natural selection that favors traits that increase an individual's chances of mating, even if those traits come with costs such as increased predation risk. Therefore, the benefits of being chosen as a mate by a peahen outweigh the costs of the cumbersome tail, and the tail is maintained in the population.
Furthermore, the tail may also signal the overall health and fitness of the male, which can also be advantageous to the peahen's offspring. As a result, the peacock's tail continues to evolve through sexual selection, even though it may have some costs in terms of survival.
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Refer to the figure showing a cell with two pairs of homologous chromosomes in prophase I of meiosis. Genes A (alleles A and a) and D (alleles D and d) are located on the longer pair of chromosomes, and gene B (alleles B and b) is located on the shorter pair.
Suppose 100 cells like the one shown go through the process of meiosis. However, only 20 of the cells have a crossover event that occurs between the A and D loci. Assuming that all 100 cells complete meiosis to produce a total of 400 haploid daughter cells, how many of the daughter cells would be expected to have the genotypes BAd or BaD?
360 (180 of each kind)
180 (90 of each kind)
40 (20 of each kind)
20 (10 of each kind)
The correct answer is 40 (20 of each kind) where 40 recombinant daughter cells will have each genotype: 20 BAd and 20 BaD.
According the question asked:
1. In this problem, there are 100 cells undergoing meiosis, and only 20 of them have a crossover event between the A and D loci.
2. Each cell undergoing meiosis produces 4 haploid daughter cells. So, 100 cells will produce 400 haploid daughter cells in total.
3. Since only 20 of the 100 cells have a crossover event between the A and D loci, only these 20 cells will produce the recombinant genotypes BAd or BaD.
4. For each of the 20 cells with a crossover event, half of their daughter cells (2 out of 4) will have the recombinant genotypes. So, 20 cells × 2 recombinant daughter cells per cell = 40 daughter cells with the genotypes BAd or BaD.
5. Since there are two possible recombinant genotypes (BAd and BaD), half of the 40 recombinant daughter cells will have each genotype: 20 BAd and 20 BaD.
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I really need help with Biology 102 ASAP!!!! but it's due date: Apr 26, 2023 at 11:59 PM EDT
Question 7 parts 1, 2 and 3
Answer:
Epinephrine ⇒ Fight-or-flight response
Norepinephrine ⇒ Stress response, repairs damaged tissues
Cortisol ⇒ ?
Cortisone ⇒ Relieve swelling and pain from inflammation
Aldosterone ⇒ Promotes renal absorption of sodium ions and and secretions of potassium ions
Adrenal Medula ⇒ Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
Adrenal Cortex ⇒ Cortisone, Aldosterone, Glucocorticoids and Mineralocorticoids
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What type of system is required to maintain the amount of sugar in the blood at a certain level, making sure it does not rise too high or fall too low?
A.one negative and one positive feedback loop
B.two positive feedback loops
C.one negative feedback loop
D.two negative feedback loops
Answer:
Explanation:
C. one negative feedback loop
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Define adaptations and explain how populations become better adapted over time.
Adaption is a change or the process of change by which an organism or species becomes better suited to its environment.
Explanation:
Adaptations develop when certain variations or differences in a population help some members survive better than others
How do you think the speed at which the environment changes impacts a population's ability to successfully adapt to the changes? Give at least one example to support your response.
Answer:
Explanation:
Ah, the question of environmental change and its impact on populations - a topic that has fascinated thinkers and scientists for centuries. To put it simply, the speed at which the environment changes can greatly influence a population's ability to adapt to the changes.
Think about it like this: if a population is faced with a slow, gradual change in their environment, they may have more time to adapt and evolve to the new conditions. However, if the change happens rapidly and suddenly, the population may not have enough time to adjust and could face serious consequences.
For example, consider the case of the polar bear population in the Arctic. Due to climate change, the Arctic sea ice is melting at an alarming rate, which threatens the polar bear's ability to hunt and survive. If the melting happened gradually over time, the polar bears may have been able to adapt and find new food sources. However, the rapid pace of the melting ice means that the polar bears are struggling to keep up with the changes and are facing declining populations.
In short, the speed at which the environment changes can have a major impact on a population's ability to adapt and survive. It's a reminder of the delicate balance between human actions and the natural world, and the importance of taking steps to protect and preserve our planet for future generations.
Chemical weathering:
uses temperature changes to break rocks
is always slower than physical weathering
transports silt and rock to other places
changes rocks on a molecular level
NEXT QUESTION
Chemical weathering changes rocks on a molecular level. It involves the breakdown and alteration of rock minerals through chemical reactions with water, atmospheric gases, and biological agents.
What is chemical weathering?The chemical reactions can result in the dissolution, oxidation, or hydrolysis of minerals, leading to the formation of new minerals and the release of ions into the environment.
Chemical weathering is generally slower than physical weathering, which involves the mechanical breakdown of rocks without changing their chemical composition.
Temperature changes are not typically involved in chemical weathering, although variations in temperature can affect the rate of chemical reactions. Chemical weathering can also contribute to the transportation of silt and rock to other places through erosion and deposition processes.
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Calculate the average speed of hydrogen nuclei (protons) in a gas of temperature 27 million K
The average speed of hydrogen nuclei (protons) in a gas can be calculated using the root-mean-square speed formula:
v_rms = sqrt((3kT)/m)
where k is the Boltzmann constant (1.38 x 10^-23 J/K), T is the temperature in Kelvin, and m is the mass of one hydrogen nucleus, which is approximately 1.67 x 10^-27 kg.
Plugging in the values:
v_rms = sqrt((3 * 1.38e-23 J/K * 27e6 K) / 1.67e-27 kg)
v_rms = 1.38 x 10^5 m/s
Therefore, the average speed of hydrogen nuclei (protons) in a gas of temperature 27 million K is approximately 1.38 x 10^5 m/s.
What is the difference between autophagy and phagocytosis?
Autophagy and phagocytosis are two different processes by which cells can remove unwanted or harmful materials.
Autophagy is a process of self-eating that occurs within cells, in which cytoplasmic components or organelles are sequestered within a double-membraned structure called an autophagosome. The autophagosome then fuses with a lysosome, and the contents are degraded by lysosomal enzymes. Autophagy is an essential cellular process for maintaining cellular homeostasis by removing damaged organelles, protein aggregates, and intracellular pathogens.
Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is a process by which cells engulf and internalize extracellular particles or pathogens. In phagocytosis, the particle to be ingested is recognized by the cell and bound to the cell surface by receptors. The cell then extends its membrane around the particle, forming a phagosome. The phagosome then fuses with a lysosome, and the contents are degraded by lysosomal enzymes. Phagocytosis is an important mechanism by which immune cells, such as macrophages and neutrophils, remove invading microorganisms or debris from the body.
In summary, autophagy and phagocytosis are two distinct cellular processes for removing unwanted materials, but they differ in the source of the material being degraded and the location of the degradation. Autophagy involves the degradation of intracellular components, while phagocytosis involves the degradation of extracellular particles. Autophagy occurs within the cell itself, while phagocytosis occurs on the cell surface.
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3. What are some characteristics of bacteria?
A. Match each type of bacteria with its description.
ROD SHAPED
ROUND SHAPED
SPIRAL SHAPED
Move by spinning like cork:
Keep from drying out
Absorb nutrients quickly
Answer:
spiral shape - move by spinning like corkshew
round shaped -keep from dry out
rod shape -absorb nutrition quic8
1. Students in a class are studying patterns of inheritance using genes involved in determining the body color and wing shape of Drosophila flies. Each of the genes has only two alleles, one of which is completely dominant to the other.
Each student in the class performed a parental cross between a fly that is true-breeding for ebony body and vestigial wings and a fly that is true-breeding for gray body and long wings. Each student then crossed several pairs of the F1 flies and determined the phenotypes of 500 of the resulting F2 flies with respect to body color and wing shape. The students in the class averaged their data for the frequencies of the four possible phenotypes (Table 1).
Table 1. Averaged phenotypic data of F2 flies
Fly Phenotype
Ebony body and long wings
Ebony body and vestigial wings
Number of Flies ‡2S E
98 ‡ 10
28 ¥ 7
Gray body and long wings
Gray body and vestigial wings
293 ‡ 25
81 ÷ 10
The students performed a second cross. The parental cross was between flies that are true-breeding for gray bodies and long wings and flies that are true-breeding for ebony bodies and curly wings. They crossed pairs of F1 flies and determined the phenotypes of the resulting F2 flies. The students found an approximate 3:1 ratio of flies with the dominant phenotype (gray bodies and long wings) to flies with the recessive phenotype (ebony bodies and curly wings). Only a few of the flies expressed the dominant phenotype of one trait and the recessive phenotype of the other trait.
(a) In the first analysis, all of the F1 flies from the students' crosses have the identical phenotype with respect to body color and wing shape, but the F2 flies have four different phenotypes. Describe how fertilization contributes to this genetic variability. (Ipt)
Fertilization results in the random combination of alleles from the gametes of each parent, leading to genetic variability in the offspring.
During fertilization, gametes from each parent combine to form a zygote, which then develops into an offspring with a unique combination of alleles. Because each parent contributes only one allele for each gene, the offspring can inherit different combinations of alleles from each parent, leading to genetic variability.
In the case of the Drosophila crosses performed by the students, the F1 flies all have the same phenotype because they each inherit one dominant allele and one recessive allele from the parents. However, in the F2 generation, the random combination of alleles during fertilization leads to the appearance of four different phenotypes, each with a different combination of dominant and recessive alleles.
This genetic variability is the result of the random assortment of alleles during gamete formation and the random combination of gametes during fertilization.
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Analyse in one way the critical role of the media on campaigns
The media plays a critical role in political campaigns by serving as a primary channel for communication between candidates and the public.
What is media ?Media refers to the various means of communication that are used to reach a large and diverse audience.
Media plays an important role in shaping public opinion, providing information and entertainment and promoting various products, services, and ideas.
Through the media, candidates can reach a large and diverse audience, and can use various forms of media such as television, radio, newspaper and social media to promote their platforms and messages.
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Highlight (3)
Guest Column: Fight Fire with Fire
by Paula Lehner, Director, Riverton Land Management Council
Riverton Daily News
June 9.
1 Here's an alarming number: $2 billion, the amount the U.S. Forest Service spends each year on wildfire
suppression. No one is claiming that we should stop fighting these fires, but there is a scientifically proven
way to limit their spread: by setting controlled, or prescribed, burns. These smaller fires, which clear
accumulated dead or diseased plant life from forests and other areas, are far less hazardous than the
uncontrolled wildfires that are increasing in frequency. By regularly burning up decaying vegetation, smaller
fires eliminate that potential fuel for much larger fires. Less
plant-matter fuel on the ground helps slow the progress of unwanted fires before they ever start.
2
3
4
In addition to causing fuel buildup, wildfire suppression has other negative consequences. For example,
wildfires can purge insect infestations. In nature, small fires normally thin the population of insects in an
area, but in the absence of those fires there is little to stop insect populations from increasing to unnaturally
high levels. Further, many plants developed their life cycles in response to periodic natural fires from
lightning strikes and other sources; these plants need fire if they are to remain healthy. Burning, as opposed
to wildfire suppression, also helps create ash, which returns nutrients to the soil and can help new seeds
germinate.
Certainly, there will always be fires that we have to fight. People and their homes have to be protected. But
the fact that more and more homes are being built near wilderness areas, many right here in Riverton,
means that the burden on land management agencies and their brave firefighters is increasing. We need the
right tools if we are going to continue to do our jobs effectively, and those tools include prescribed burns.
There is no way around it. We have to fight fire with fire.
Letter to the Editor: Prescribed Burns
Riverton Daily News
June 11
5
I found Paula Lehner's opinion piece about prescribed burns nothing less than horrifying. In her ival, she
neglected to mention even one of the many criticisms of prescribed burns. First, consider this appalling
statistic: one in every 500 prescribed burns gets out of control, and while that may sound like a small
fraction, just imagine if that one raging fire were the one Lehner had decided to set near your house. In
2009, a "controlled" fire set in Yosemite National Park was intended to burn 91 acres; instead it consumed
5,000 acres.
As for her ridiculous idea that "controlled" fires are needed to rid areas of wildfire fuel, doesn't she realize
that fire isn't the only way to eliminate unwanted plants? Has she not heard of mechanical and chemical
thinning-in simple terms, the use of power tools and herbicides?
Finally-and this is the worst omission of all-she did not mention the costs to the surrounding area of the
1
she wts to set. River 2:35/1:31:01 it all-time high air pollution levels, and cooke from
What is the impact of Lehner's use of the word "tools" in paragraph 37
A. It minimizes the emotional reaction people often have to
prescribed burns.
B.
It indicates that using prescribed burns makes firefighting similar
to other trades.
C.
It emphasizes that prescribed burns should be used only under
specific conditions.
D.
It suggests that prescribed burns have costs similar to other
implements used by firefighters.
8
CC
Navigator Next
The impact of Lehner's use of the word "tools" in paragraph 3 is to emphasize that prescribed burns should be used only under specific conditions.
What is specific?Specific, by definition, is something that is precise, exact, or particular. For example, if a person is looking for a specific type of car, they might know exactly what make, model, and year they want. In contrast, a person who is looking for a car in general would not have as specific of an idea.
By referring to prescribed burns as "tools," Lehner implies that they should be wielded with the same precision and care as any other tool used by firefighters. This suggests that prescribed burns should not be used indiscriminately, but rather only when the conditions are right and the potential benefits are clear.
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The male part of a flower is called the A) ______, of which a flower can have many! This is divided into 2 parts. The long and narrow filament is topped by the B) _____which makes pollen! Pollen contains the male reproductive cell. The female part of a flower is called the C) _____...a flower can only have one! It is, though, divided into 3 parts. The D) _____is the sticky top part. Its job is to catch pollen! The round bottom part of the pistil is called the E) _____. Its job is to produce female egg cells. These 2 parts are connected by a tube called the F) _____. The outer part of the flower is called a petal. A flower may have several colorful petals. Petals attract insects and mammals to the flower for G) ______ to occur.
Explanation:
A)Stamen
B)Anther
C)Carpel
D)Stigma
E)Ovary
F)Style
G) Pollination
The processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration both involve exchanges of two gases--oxygen and carbon dioxide--with the atmosphere. How does the exchange of gases compare between the two processes? A. Both processes remove carbon dioxide and oxygen from the atmosphere. B. Both processes add carbon dioxide and oxygen to the atmosphere. C. Both processes add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere and remove oxygen from the atmosphere. D. The gas that is added to the atmosphere by one process is removed from the atmosphere by the other process.
The correct answer is option D. The gas that is added to the atmosphere by one process is removed from the atmosphere by the other process.
Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are interconnected processes that occur in plants and other organisms. During photosynthesis, plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to produce glucose and oxygen. The equation for photosynthesis is:
6C[tex]O^{2}[/tex] + 6[tex]H_{2}[/tex]O + sunlight → [tex]C_{6} H_{12}O_{6}[/tex] + 6[tex]O_{6[/tex]
In this process, carbon dioxide is taken in from the atmosphere, while oxygen is released as a byproduct into the atmosphere.
On the other hand, cellular respiration is the process by which organisms break down glucose to produce energy. The equation for cellular respiration is:
[tex]C_{6}H_{12}O_{6}[/tex] + 6[tex]O_{2}[/tex] → 6C[tex]O_{2}[/tex] + 6[tex]H_{2}[/tex]O + energy
During cellular respiration, oxygen is taken in from the atmosphere, while carbon dioxide is released as a waste product into the atmosphere.
Therefore, while photosynthesis adds oxygen to the atmosphere and removes carbon dioxide, cellular respiration adds carbon dioxide to the atmosphere and removes oxygen.
This gas exchange relationship between the two processes ensures a balance in the atmospheric concentrations of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Hence, the correct answer is D.
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You and I all have between 30 to
chemicals in our bodies that our grandparents didn't have.
Many of these chemicals are now linked to the skyrocketing incidents of chronic childhood disease that
we're seeing across industrialized nations.
O 150
O 1000
O 50,000
O 75
Answer:
The answer is not provided in the given text. It only mentions that we have between 30 to thousands of chemicals in our bodies that our grandparents didn't have and some of these chemicals are linked to chronic childhood diseases.
Explanation:
Please help: Also the star mentioned has a luminosity of 10^3
Also options for part A
A: White Dwarf
B: Giant
C: Main sequence
D: Supergiant
which statement supports the answer from part A
A: The star is cool and bright compared to other stars
B: The star is hot and bright compared to other ones
C: The star is cool and dim compared to other stars
D: The star is hot and dim compared to other stars
A) According to the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram, the astronomer discovered a main sequence star, option (b) is correct.
B) The supporting statement for the answer in part A is "the star is cool and dim compared to other types of stars", option (c) is correct.
A) The astronomer discovered a star on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram with a temperature of 3,750 K and a luminosity of 10³ [tex]L_{sun}[/tex]. We can see that the star falls in the lower right region of the diagram, which is the main sequence, option (b) is correct.
B) The temperature of the star is relatively low, only 3,750 K, compared to other types of stars such as supergiants or giants, which can have temperatures in excess of 10,000 K. The luminosity of the star is 10³ [tex]L_{sun}[/tex], which is relatively low compared to other types of stars. This indicates that the star is not as bright as other types of stars, which confirms that it is a cool and dim main sequence star, option (c) is correct.
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The complete question is:
This question has two parts. First, answer Part A. Then, answer Part B. A Hertzsprung-Russell diagram is shown. An astronomer discovers a star that has a temperature of 3,750 K and a luminosity of 10³ [tex]L_{sun}[/tex].
PART A: According to the diagram, which type of star did the astronomer discover?
a. White dwarf
b. Main sequence
c. Giant
d. Supergiant
PART B: Which statement supports the answer to Part A?
a. The star is cool and bright compared to other types of stars.
b. The star is hot and bright compared to other types of stars.
c. The star is cool and dim compared to other types of stars.
d. The star is hot and dim compared to other types of stars.
The table here shows information about four different populations of a flowering plant species. The relative population sizes, level of genetic variation, and presence of selective pressures are indicated in the table. Analyze the data and evaluate in which population is natural selection most likely to cause a shift in the alleles and phenotypes?
Responses
A II
B IIII
C IIIIII
D IV
I really need help with Biology 102 ASAP!!!! but it's due date: Apr 17, 2023 at 11:59 PM EDT
Questions 9 and 10
Answer:
Affects a person's ability to regulate glucose metabolism
Often develops in overweight or obese people
Explanation:
3.Small food particles with diameter 10-2 mm and density 1.03 g/cm3 are suspended in liquid of density 1.00 1.03 g/cm3. The viscosity of the liquid is 1.25 mPa. s. A tubular bowl centrifuge of length 70 cm and radius 11.5 cm is used to separate the particles. If the centrifuge is operated at 10,000 rpm, estimate the feed flow rate at which the food particles are just removed from the suspension.
The feed flow rate at which the food particles are just removed from the suspension is 0.057 m^3/s.
What is a centrifuge?The critical speed for separation of particles can be calculated using the equation:
v_c = (r^2 * g * (ρp - ρl)) / (9 * η)
where:
r = radius of the centrifuge = 11.5 cm
g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s^2
ρp = density of particles = 1.03 g/cm^3
ρl = density of liquid = 1.00 g/cm^3
η = viscosity of liquid = 1.25 mPa.s = 0.00125 Pa.s
Converting all units to SI units, we get:
r = 0.115 m
g = 9.81 m/s^2
ρp = 1030 kg/m^3
ρl = 1000 kg/m^3
η = 0.00125 Pa.s
Substituting these values in the equation, we get:
v_c = (0.115^2 * 9.81 * (1030 - 1000)) / (9 * 0.00125) = 14.04 m/s
The feed flow rate can be calculated using the equation:
Q = π * r^2 * v_f
where:
Q = flow rate
r = radius of the centrifuge = 11.5 cm = 0.115 m
v_f = feed velocity
At the critical speed, the feed velocity equals the critical velocity:
v_f = v_c = 14.04 m/s
Substituting these values in the equation, we get:
Q = π * (0.115)^2 * 14.04 = 0.057 m^3/s
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what does it mean by the liver is considered the gatekeeper of the body and what are two functions of the liver
When a plant grows, where does the additional matter come from? Aristotle assumed it all came from the soil, though this is certainly not the complete answer. Provide a summary of this
process, in your own words, utilizing terms introduced in this unit (such as chemical reaction,
chemical bonds, molecules) and previous units (such as chemical energy, conservation of
energy, conservation of matter). From this summary, also provide a more accurate answer as to where the new plant matter originated.
Answer:
Plants primarily grow through a process called photosynthesis, which is a chemical reaction that converts light energy into chemical energy stored in glucose molecules. During photosynthesis, plants use carbon dioxide from the air and water from the soil to produce glucose and release oxygen. This process occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells and is facilitated by a complex set of chemical reactions involving enzymes and pigments.
In addition to photosynthesis, plants also acquire nutrients from the soil through their roots. These nutrients are used to build molecules such as proteins and nucleic acids, which are essential for growth and development. However, the majority of the plant's mass comes from the carbon dioxide that it absorbs from the air during photosynthesis.
Therefore, the additional matter in a growing plant mainly comes from the carbon dioxide that it captures from the air through photosynthesis. While nutrients from the soil are important for plant growth, they contribute relatively little to the overall mass of the plant.
To summarize, plants grow through the process of photosynthesis, which converts light energy into chemical energy stored in glucose molecules. The primary source of new plant matter is carbon dioxide from the air, which is incorporated into glucose during photosynthesis. While nutrients from the soil are important for plant growth, they are not the primary source of additional matter in a growing plant.