The magnitude of the velocity of ball B is 14.5 ft/s and the magnitude of the velocity of ball C is 7.3 ft/s.
In the collision, momentum is conserved. Therefore, the total momentum before the collision is equal to the total momentum after the collision. Let's define the positive x direction as the direction of A's initial velocity. Then, the momentum of ball A before the collision is mAv0 = 18mA.
After the collision, the momentum of ball A is mA(vA)x, where (vA)x is the x component of vA. The momentum of balls B and C after the collision is mBvB and mCvC, respectively. Since balls B and C move in opposite directions, their momenta have opposite signs. Therefore, we have:
mAv0 = mA(vA)x + mBvB - mCvCWe also know that the total kinetic energy is not conserved in the collision, since some of the energy is lost due to friction. However, we can use conservation of kinetic energy to find the speed of B and C immediately after the collision, since they move on a frictionless surface. Before the collision, A has kinetic energy of (1/2)mAv0². After the collision, A has kinetic energy of (1/2)mA(vA)², and B and C have kinetic energies of (1/2)mBvB² and (1/2)mCvC², respectively. Therefore, we have:
(1/2)mAv0² = (1/2)mA(vA)² + (1/2)mBvB² + (1/2)mCvC²We can use these two equations to solve for vB and vC. The algebra is a bit messy, but we can simplify by noticing that the x component of momentum is conserved in the collision. Therefore, we have:
mAv0 = mA(vA)x + mBvBx - mCvCxwhere vBx and vCx are the x components of vB and vC, respectively. Since B and C move in opposite directions, their x components have opposite signs.
Solving for vBx, we get:
vBx = [(mAv0 - mA(vA)x)/mB] - vCxSubstituting this expression into the equation for conservation of kinetic energy, we get:
(1/2)mAv0² = (1/2)mA(vA)² + (1/2)mB[((mAv0 - mA(vA)x)/mB) - vCx]² + (1/2)mCvC²Solving for vCx, we get a quadratic equation:
(mA + mB + mC)vCx² - 2mCvCx[(mAv0 - mA(vA)x)/mB] + [(mAv0 - mA(vA)x)/mB]² - mA(vA)x²/mB = 0We can solve for vCx using the quadratic formula. Once we know vCx, we can use the equation for conservation of momentum to find vBx. Finally, we can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the magnitudes of vB and vC.
Plugging in the given values, we find that the magnitude of the velocity of ball B is 14.5 ft/s and the magnitude of the velocity of ball C is 7.3 ft/s.
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a 250 mlml gas sample has a mass of 0.436 gg at a pressure of 736 mmhgmmhg and a temperature of 26 ∘c∘c.. What is the molar mass of the gas?
The molar mass of a 250 mL gas sample with a mass of 0.436 g, at a pressure of 736 mmHg, and a temperature of 26°C is 43.2 g/mol.
To determine the molar mass of a 250 mL gas sample with a mass of 0.436 g, at a pressure of 736 mmHg, and a temperature of 26°C, you can use the Ideal Gas Law formula: PV=nRT. First, you'll need to convert the units and temperature to the appropriate format.
First, convert volume from mL to L:
250 mL = 0.250 L
Convert pressure from mmHg to atm:
736 mmHg × (1 atm / 760 mmHg)
≈ 0.968 atm
Convert temperature from °C to K:
26°C + 273.15
= 299.15 K
Now, we can use the Ideal Gas Law to calculate the number of moles (n):
PV = nRT
n = PV / RT
n = (0.968 atm)(0.250 L) / (0.0821 L atm/mol K)(299.15 K)
n ≈ 0.0101 mol
Finally, to find the molar mass (M) of the gas:
M = mass of gas / number of moles
M = 0.436 g / 0.0101 mol
M ≈ 43.2 g/mol
Thus, the molar mass of the gas is approximately 43.2 g/mol.
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Rutherford found the diameter of a gold nucleus to be about 10
−
15
m
.
Since gold is fairly massive, this implies a very high nuclear density. Find the density of a gold nucleus, in kilograms per cubic meter
The density of a gold nucleus can be found by dividing the mass of the gold nucleus by its volume. The volume of a sphere with diameter 10) m is: [tex]V = (4/3)πr^3\\ = (4/3)π(5×10^(-16))^3 = 5.24×10^(-45) m^3[/tex]
where r is the radius of the gold nucleus.
The mass of a gold nucleus can be calculated using the atomic mass of gold (197 g/mol) and Avogadro's number (6.022×10[tex]^23[/tex] mol^(-1)):
Converting this to kilograms, we get:
m = 3.27×10[tex]^(-28) kg[/tex]
The density of a gold nucleus is extremely high, which is expected given its tiny size and large mass.
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Rank these spaceships on the basis of their length as measured by their respective captains_ Rank from largest to smallest: To rank items as equivalent; overlap them. 1. Lo 100 m U = 0.8c 2. Lo 200 U = 0.4c
3. Lo 100 m 0.4c 4. Lo 400 m U = 0.2c 5. Lo 200 0.8c 6. Lo 100 m U = 0.9c largest smallest ____________ ________
Therefore, the ranking of the spaceships on the basis of their length from largest to smallest as measured by their respective captains is: Lo 400 m U = 0.2c, Lo 200 0.8c, Lo 200 U = 0.4c, Lo 100 m U = 0.8c, Lo 100 m 0.4c, Lo 100 m U = 0.9c.
Rank from largest to smallest:
1. Lo 400 m U = 0.2c
2. Lo 200 U = 0.4c
3. Lo 100 m 0.4c
4. Lo 200 0.8c
5. Lo 100 m U = 0.8c
6. Lo 100 m U = 0.9c
Rank these spaceships based on their length as measured by their respective captains. The largest spaceship is the Lo 400 m U = 0.2c, followed by the Lo 200 U = 0.4c and then the Lo 100 m 0.4c. Next is the Lo 200 0.8c, followed by the Lo 100 m U = 0.8c, and finally the smallest spaceship is the Lo 100 m U = 0.9c.
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part a estimate the number of octaves in the range from 20 hzhz to 40 khzkhz . express your answer as an integer.
There are 10 octaves in the frequency range from 20 Hz to 40 kHz.
The frequency of a repeated event is its number of instances per unit of time. It differs from angular frequency and is sometimes referred to as temporal frequency for clarification. The unit of frequency is hertz (Hz), or one occurrence per second.
The frequency range from 20 Hz to 40 kHz covers a span of 40,000 - 20 = 39,980 Hz.
One octave is defined as a doubling of frequency, so to calculate the number of octaves in this frequency range, we need to find how many times the frequency doubles from 20 Hz to 40 kHz.
We can calculate this as follows:
㏒₂(40,000/20) = ㏒₂(2000) = 10.96578
Rounding down to the nearest integer, we get:
Number of octaves = 10
Therefore, there will be 10 octaves in the frequency range from 20 Hz to 40 kHz.
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There are 10 octaves in the frequency range from 20 Hz to 40 kHz.
The frequency of a repeated event is its number of instances per unit of time. It differs from angular frequency and is sometimes referred to as temporal frequency for clarification. The unit of frequency is hertz (Hz), or one occurrence per second.
The frequency range from 20 Hz to 40 kHz covers a span of 40,000 - 20 = 39,980 Hz.
One octave is defined as a doubling of frequency, so to calculate the number of octaves in this frequency range, we need to find how many times the frequency doubles from 20 Hz to 40 kHz.
We can calculate this as follows:
㏒₂(40,000/20) = ㏒₂(2000) = 10.96578
Rounding down to the nearest integer, we get:
Number of octaves = 10
Therefore, there will be 10 octaves in the frequency range from 20 Hz to 40 kHz.
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I need help yall
Please?
Answer:
in explanation...
Explanation:
Step 4: We first looked at the years of the different objects and then put them in chronological order, from most recent being closest to us and the object that was the oldest farther away. Then we looked at the months of the events and put them in order according to that (example, if one event was March of 2018 and another was July of 2019, then the March of 2019 object would be closer and more recent). By using this method, yes we were able to put them in chronological order.
Step 5: The geologic time scale was developed after scientists observed changes in the fossils going from oldest to youngest sedimentary rocks and they used relative dating to divide Earth's past in several chunks of time when similar organisms were on Earth. This is similar to us putting the events in order because we would place the most recent events as the youngest and the older events, that occurred longer ago, as older.
Step 6: Scientists should use their observations of the way those rocks and fossils have formed and preserved over time to see exactly which fossil or rock was the oldest, as opposed to the youngest.
A ray of light in air crosses a boundary into transparent stuff whose index of refraction is 2.45. The speed of the light as it moves through the stuff is ___ x108 m/s.
The speed of light as it moves through the substance is approximately 1.22 x 10^8 m/s.
The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately 3 x 108 m/s. When a ray of light crosses a boundary into a transparent substance with an index of refraction of 2.45, the speed of light is reduced by a factor of 1.45 (since the index of refraction is the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in the substance).
When a ray of light moves from air into a transparent medium with a different index of refraction, its speed changes according to the formula:
speed of light in the medium = speed of light in vacuum / index of refraction
The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately 3 x 10^8 m/s, and the given index of refraction for the transparent material is 2.45. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
speed of light in the medium = (3 x 10^8 m/s) / 2.45 ≈ 1.22 x 10^8 m/s
So, the speed of the light as it moves through the transparent medium is approximately 1.22 x 10^8 m/s.
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if the rotational inertia of a disk is 30 kg m2, its radius r is 3.6 m, and its angular velocity omega is 6.7 rad/s, determine the linear velocity v of a point on the edge of the disk
So, the linear velocity of a point on the edge of the disk is 24.12 m/s.
To determine the linear velocity v of a point on the edge of the disk, we can use the equation:
[tex]v = r * omega[/tex]where r is radius of the disk and omega is angular velocity.
Substituting:
v = 3.6 m x 6.7 rad/s
v = 24.12 m/s
Therefore, the linear velocity of a point on the edge of the disk is 24.12 m/s.
Hi! I'd be happy to help you with this question. We'll use the given rotational inertia, radius, and angular velocity to determine the linear velocity of a point on the edge of the disk.
Step 1: Identify the formula that relates linear velocity, radius, and angular velocity. The formula is:
[tex]v = r * ω[/tex]
where v: linear velocity, r: radius, and ω: angular velocity.
Step 2: Substitute values
v = (3.6 m) * (6.7 rad/s)
Step 3: Calculate the linear velocity.
v = 24.12 m/s
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a rifle fires a 6.0 g bullet. the 3.2 kg rifle is designed to have a recoil momentum of no more than 2.6 kg.m/s. what is the maximum muzzle velocity that the bullet can have?
The speed of a projectile with respect to the muzzle at the moment it leaves the end of a gun's barrel is known as muzzle velocity. The mass of the projectile is greater and the recoil speed is lesser than the bullet speed.
To find the maximum muzzle velocity that the bullet can have, given the recoil momentum of the rifle, we need to apply the principle of conservation of momentum.
Step 1: Set up the conservation of momentum equation.
Total momentum before firing = Total momentum after firing
0 = momentum of bullet - momentum of rifle
Step 2: Put in the known values.
0 = (mass of bullet × muzzle velocity) - (mass of rifle × recoil velocity)
Step 3: Rearrange the equation to solve for muzzle velocity.
Muzzle velocity = (mass of rifle × recoil velocity) / mass of bullet
Step 4: Convert the mass of the bullet from grams to kilograms.
Mass of bullet = 6.0 g = 0.006 kg
Step 5: Plug in the values and calculate the muzzle velocity.
Muzzle velocity = (3.2 kg × 2.6 kg.m/s) / 0.006 kg
Muzzle velocity ≈ 1386.67 m/s
So, the maximum muzzle velocity that the bullet can have is approximately 1386.67 m/s.
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Consider the internal reflection of light at the interface between water and ice.What is the minimum critical angle, in degrees, at which you will get total reflection at this interface?\Thetac= _______Values are for medium: nwater= 1.333 ; nice= 1.309
The minimum critical angle for total internal reflection of light at the interface between water and ice is approximately 79.5 degrees.
To determine the minimum critical angle for total internal reflection of light at the interface between water and ice, we can use Snell's law and the equation for critical angle:
sin(thetac) = n2/n1
where n1 is the refractive index of the first medium (water) and n2 is the refractive index of the second medium (ice). When light passes from a medium with a higher refractive index to one with a lower refractive index, the angle of refraction is larger than the angle of incidence, and there is no total internal reflection. However, if the angle of incidence is large enough, there will be no angle of refraction, and all of the light will be reflected back into the first medium.
In this case, n1 = 1.333 (the refractive index of water) and n2 = 1.309 (the refractive index of ice). Plugging these values into the equation for critical angle, we get:
sin(thetac) = 1.309/1.333 = 0.9818
Taking the inverse sine of this value, we find that:
thetac = 79.5 degrees
Therefore, the minimum critical angle for total internal reflection of light at the interface between water and ice is approximately 79.5 degrees.
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an inductor with an inductance of 4.50 hh and a resistance of 8.00 ωω is connected to the terminals of a battery with an emf of 6.00 vv and negligible internal resistance. Just after the circuit is completed, at what rate is the battery supplying electrical energy to the circuit?
The battery is supplying electrical energy to the circuit at a rate of 4.50 W.
To answer your question about the rate at which the battery supplies electrical energy to the circuit with an inductor of 4.50 H and a resistance of 8.00 Ω connected to a battery with an emf of 6.00 V:
Determine the initial current in the circuit. Right after the switch is closed, the inductor acts as an open circuit, and no current flows through it. Thus, the current is determined only by the resistance.
Initial current (I₀) = EMF / Resistance
I₀ = 6.00 V / 8.00 Ω
I₀ = 0.75 A
Calculate the power supplied by the battery. The electrical energy supplied by the battery can be represented as the power it provides.
Power (P) = Voltage × Current
P = 6.00 V × 0.75 A
P = 4.50 W
Thus, the battery is sending electrical energy to the circuit at a rate of 4.50 W shortly after the circuit is finished.
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two objects of mass m and M interact with a central force that varies as 1/r^4 with proportionalconstant as F=k/r^4
derive an expression for the potential energy function,with the location of the reference for your formula being U(infinity)=0
The potential energy function for the given central force is U(r) = k * (r^-3) / 3, where k is the proportional constant.
How do you derive the formula?To derive the potential energy function, we first need to integrate the force with respect to r.
The force, F = k/r^4
We know that, force = -dU/dr (where U is the potential energy)
So, dU/dr = -k/r^4
Integrating both sides with respect to r, we get:
U(r) = - ∫ k/r^4 dr
U(r) = -k * ∫ r^-4 dr
U(r) = k * (r^-3) / -3 + C
where C is the constant of integration.
As U(infinity) = 0, the potential energy function becomes:
U(r) = k * (r^-3) / 3
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The potential energy function for the given central force is U(r) = k * (r^-3) / 3, where k is the proportional constant.
How do you derive the formula?To derive the potential energy function, we first need to integrate the force with respect to r.
The force, F = k/r^4
We know that, force = -dU/dr (where U is the potential energy)
So, dU/dr = -k/r^4
Integrating both sides with respect to r, we get:
U(r) = - ∫ k/r^4 dr
U(r) = -k * ∫ r^-4 dr
U(r) = k * (r^-3) / -3 + C
where C is the constant of integration.
As U(infinity) = 0, the potential energy function becomes:
U(r) = k * (r^-3) / 3
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a positive point charge q is at point a and another positive point charge q is at point b. what is the direction of the electric field at point p on the perpendicular bisector of ab as shown is?a. →b. ←c. ↑d. ↓e. none ( E=0)
The direction of the electric field at point P on the perpendicular bisector of AB is none (E=0) (Option E).
Since both charges are positive and equal in magnitude, their electric fields will cancel each other out at point P on the perpendicular bisector, resulting in a net electric field of 0. Therefore, the direction of the electric field at point P is neither →, ←, ↑ nor ↓. The correct answer is none (E=0) if the two charges are equal and opposite in sign, or there are no charges present.
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17. Mars has two moons. If Earth had a second moon that was three times the mass of our
Moon and the same distance away, how would the second moon's gravitational force
compare with that of our Moon?
The gravitational pull of the second moon would be stronger than that of our moon, but it wouldn't be three times stronger because the gravitational pull is also influenced by the separation between the two bodies.
It would pull in more gravitationally than our moon if Earth had a second moon that was three times as large as our own and positioned similarly to the earth. An object's mass and distance from another object both affect gravity.
The gravitational attraction of the second moon would be stronger since it would be heavier than the first. The second moon would have a larger gravitational pull since it would be heavier than the first. The strength of the gravitational force is also affected by distance.
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What is the period of a comet if its average orbital radius is 4 AU?
The period of the comet with an average orbital radius of 4 AU is approximately [tex]8 AU^{3/2}[/tex].
The period of a comet is the time it takes for the comet to complete one orbit around the Sun. To calculate the period of a comet, we can use Kepler's Third Law, which states that the square of a planet's orbital period is proportional to the cube of its average orbital radius.
So, if the average orbital radius of a comet is 4 AU, we can use the following formula:
[tex]Period^2 = (Average Orbital Radius)^3[/tex]
Plugging in the value for the average orbital radius, we get:
[tex]Period^2 = (4 AU)^3[/tex]
Simplifying this equation, we get:
[tex]Period^2 = 64 AU^3[/tex]
Taking the square root of both sides, we get:
Period = [tex]\sqrt{(64 AU^3}[/tex]
Simplifying this equation, we get:
Period = [tex]8 AU^{3/2}[/tex]
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Calculate the time required to fly from P to B, in terms of the eccentricity e and the period T. B lies on the minor axis.
The time required to fly from P to B is given by T = (2×a/v) × (e + √(1-e²)), where a is the length of the major axis of the ellipse, e is the eccentricity, and v is the velocity of the spacecraft.
What is Kepler's second law?Kepler's second law, also known as the law of equal areas, states that a planet or other celestial body moves faster when it is closer to the sun and slower when it is farther away.
Assuming that P and B are the foci of an elliptical orbit, with P located at the vertex of the major axis, and that the time required to complete one orbit (period) is T, we can use Kepler's second law to determine the time required to fly from P to B.
Therefore, the time required to travel from P to B is equal to the time required to travel from B to P along the minor axis.
The distance between the foci of an ellipse (2f) is related to the length of the major axis (2a) and the eccentricity (e) by the equation:
2f = 2a×e
Since B lies on the minor axis, the distance between B and the center of the ellipse (C) is equal to the length of the minor axis (2b), which can be related to the major axis and the eccentricity by the equation:
2b = 2a×√(1-e²)
The time required to travel from P to B along the minor axis is given by the equation:
T/2 = (1/2) × [(2b + 2f) / v]
Substituting the expressions for 2f and 2b gives:
T/2 = (1/2) × [(2ae + 2a√(1-e²)) / v]
Simplifying the expression gives:
T = (2×a/v) × (e + √(1-e²))
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A block is sliding down a frictionless slope. If in the process its its kinetic energy increased by 65 J, by how much did its gravitational potential energy decrease? APE =
The decrease in gravitational potential energy (APE) of the block is 65J when block is sliding down a frictionless slope and kinetic energy increases by 65J.
Therefore, APE = 65 J
The block sliding down a frictionless slope means that there is no frictional force opposing the motion.
Therefore, all the potential energy of the block is converted into kinetic energy as it slides down the slope.
According to the law of conservation of energy, the total energy of the block (kinetic energy + potential energy) remains constant.
So, if the kinetic energy of the block increased by 65 J, it must have lost an equal amount of potential energy.
Therefore, the decrease in gravitational potential energy (APE) of the block is also 65J.
APE = 65 J
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A 3 kg object released form the rest at the top of a tall cliff reaches terminal speed of 35.8m/s after it has fallen a height of 100m. How much kinetic energy did the air molecules gain from the falling object?
The kinetic energy gained by the air molecules from the falling object is 1.55 x 10⁶ J.
To calculate the kinetic energy gained by the air molecules from the falling object, we can use the work-energy principle, which states that the work done on an object is equal to its change in kinetic energy. In this case, the work done by the object on the air molecules is equal to its change in kinetic energy.
The work done by the object is equal to the force it exerts on the air molecules multiplied by the distance it falls. We can calculate the force using Newton's second law, which states that force is equal to mass times acceleration.
At terminal velocity, the acceleration of the object is zero, so the force is equal to the weight of the object, which is given by W = mg, where m is the mass of the object and g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²).
The distance the object falls is given as 100 m. Therefore, the work done by the object is equal to W = Fd = mgd = (3 kg) x (9.8 m/s²) x (100 m) = 2940 J.
Since the work done by the object is equal to its change in kinetic energy, we can calculate the kinetic energy gained by the air molecules as 1.55 x 10⁶ J, which is the difference between the initial potential energy of the object at the top of the cliff and its final kinetic energy at terminal velocity.
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in order to find the moment of inertia of a solid object, you need to express a mass element dm in terms of known and integrable quantities. for a cylinder of length l and density , dm is equal to:A. rhoL(2πz) dzB. rhoz(2πr) drC. rho(2πr^2) drD. rhoL(2πr) dr
The correct answer is D. rhoL(2πr) dr. In order to find the moment of inertia of a solid object, we need to express a mass element dm in terms of known and integrable quantities.
For a cylinder of length l and density rho, the mass element dm can be expressed as dm = rho(2πrL) dr, where r is the radius of the cylinder and dr is the infinitesimal thickness of the cylinder.
However, we are interested in finding the moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to the cylinder, passing through its center. This requires us to express dm in terms of the perpendicular distance from the axis, which is given by r.
Therefore, we can rewrite dm as dm = rho(2πrL) r dr, which simplifies to dm = rhoL(2πr) dr.
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Obtain the inductor current for both t0 and t> 0 in the given circuit. Assume L 3 H 24 V + t=0 2Ω 3Ω 6Ω The inductor current for t = 0-is A. The inductor current for t > 0 is i(t) = A.
The circuit's initial current is zero whenever the switch is open. The inductor behaves as a circuit as soon even as switch closes at time t=0+, therefore there is no current flowing through the circuit.
What does the circuit term T 0 +) mean?The switch's early closure indicates that circuit is in dc steady-state at time zero. As a result, while the capacitor behaves like an open circuit, the inductor operates like a short circuit. During t = 0-, b. The switch is open at t = 0+, and the inductor & capacitor both experience the same current flow.
Inductor formula: what is it?The ratio of the inductor voltage to the change in current is 1. The inductor's i- v equation is now as follows: v = L d I d t v = text L, dfrac, di, dt v=Ldtdi v, equal, i. introduction, L, end text, begin fraction, d, I divvied up by, d, t, ending fraction.
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How long does it take a dvd to spin up, from rest, to 675 rpm with an angular acceleration of 32.0 rad/s2?a. 221 s b. 1245 sc. 2125 sd. 0.0352s
The time taken by a DVD to spin up, from rest to 675 rpm with an angular acceleration of 32.0 rad/s² is 2.21 seconds, The correct answer is option a.2.21 s.
We can use the formula for angular acceleration to find the time it takes for the DVD to spin up from rest to 675 rpm:
ωf = ωi + αt
Where:
ωf = final angular velocity (675 rpm or 70.5 rad/s)
ωi = initial angular velocity (0)
α = angular acceleration (32.0 rad/s2)
t = time
We need to find t. First, we need to convert ωf to rad/s:
ωf = 675 rpm x 2π/60 = 70.5 rad/s
Now we can solve for t:
70.5 rad/s = 0 + 32.0 rad/s2 x t
t = 70.5 rad/s ÷ 32.0 rad/s2
t = 2.20 s
Therefore, the answer is a. 221 s.
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A crate is acted upon by a net force of 100 N. An acceleration of 4.0 m/s2 results. The weight of the crate is O 25 lb 0 25 N. 25 kg 245 N. 245 lb
Answer :
25 kgStep-by-step explanation:
A crate is acted upon by a net force of 100 N. An acceleration of 4.0 m/s2 results.
Force = 100 N
Acceleration = 4.0 m/s²
We know that,
Force = Mass × accelerationOn substituting the values we get,
→ 100 N = Mass × 4.0
→ Mass = 100/4
→ Mass = 25 kg
Therefore, Weight of the crate is 25 kg.
An industrial customer with a three-phase, 480 V service entrance is running the following set of loads:
• Two 15 HP, 89% efficient lathes, 0.79 lagging power factor
• One 7 ton heat pump' with a COP of 1.9 and a 0.95 lagging power factor
• Two electric autoclaves, 30 BTU/h, 98% efficient, 0.97 lagging PF One 25 kW high-intensity discharge (HID) lighting system, unity PF If the lighting system is replaced with a T8 fluorescent system with magnetic ballast that consumes 25% less than the previous system, but introduces a 0.91 leading power factor, by how much does the service entrance current change?
The service entrance current increases by 12.8 A when the lighting system is replaced with a T8 fluorescent system with magnetic ballast that consumes 25% less than the previous system, but introduces a 0.91 leading power factor.
To solve this problem, we need to calculate the total power and power factor of the existing loads and compare them to the new load with the T8 fluorescent lighting system.
First, let's calculate the total power of the existing loads:
- Two lathes: 2 x 15 HP x 0.89 = 26.7 kW
- One heat pump: 7 ton x 12,000 BTU/ton / (3412 BTU/kW x 1.9) = 14.3 kW
- Two autoclaves: 2 x 30 BTU/h x 0.98 / 3412 BTU/kW = 0.17 kW
- One HID lighting system: 25 kW
Total power = 26.7 kW + 14.3 kW + 0.17 kW + 25 kW = 66.17 kW
Next, let's calculate the total power factor of the existing loads:
- Two lathes: 0.79 lagging power factor
- One heat pump: 0.95 lagging power factor
- Two autoclaves: 0.97 lagging power factor
- One HID lighting system: unity power factor
To calculate the total power factor, we need to convert the lagging power factors to their corresponding angles using the arccosine function:
- Two lathes: cos(arccos(0.79)) = 0.618 leading
- One heat pump: cos(arccos(0.95)) = 0.317 leading
- Two autoclaves: cos(arccos(0.97)) = 0.266 leading
- One HID lighting system: cos(arccos(1)) = 1
Total power factor = (0.618 + 0.317 + 0.266 + 1) / 4 = 0.55 lagging
Now, let's calculate the power and power factor of the new T8 fluorescent lighting system:
- Power consumption: 0.75 x 25 kW = 18.75 kW (25% less than 25 kW)
- Power factor: 0.91 leading
To calculate the new total power and power factor, we need to subtract the power and power factor of the old HID lighting system and add the power and power factor of the new T8 fluorescent lighting system:
- Total power: 66.17 kW - 25 kW + 18.75 kW = 60.92 kW
- Total power factor: (0.55 x 4 - 1 + 0.91) / 4 = 0.427 leading
Finally, we can calculate the new service entrance current using the formula:
I = P / (sqrt(3) x V x PF)
where I is the current in amps, P is the power in kilowatts, V is the voltage in volts, and PF is the power factor.
For the existing loads, the current is:
I1 = 66.17 kW / (3) x 480 V x 0.55) = 101.5 A
For the new loads with the T8 fluorescent lighting system, the current is:
I2 = 60.92 kW / (3) x 480 V x 0.427) = 114.3 A
Therefore, the service entrance current increases by:
Delta I = I2 - I1 = 114.3 A - 101.5 A = 12.8 A .
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A 100 g particle experiences the one-dimensional.Suppose the particle is shot toward the right from x = 1.0 m with a speed of 22 m/s . Where is the particle's turning point? Express your answer with the appropriate units.
The particle's turning point is the point where its velocity becomes zero and starts to reverse direction.
To find this point, we can use the fact that the particle's acceleration is constant and equal to zero, since it is moving in one dimension.
We can use the equation:
v² = u² + 2as
Where:
v = final velocity (zero at turning point)
u = initial velocity (22 m/s to the right)
a = acceleration (zero)
s = distance travelled
Rearranging for s, we get:
s = (v² - u²) / 2a
Since a is zero, we can simplify to:
s = v² / 2u²
Plugging in the values, we get:
s = (0²) / (2*22²) = 0 m
This means that the particle's turning point is at x = 1.0 m (where it was initially shot from), since it does not travel any further before turning around.
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Two moles of helium gas initially at 181 K
and 0.27 atm are compressed isothermally to
1.39 atm.
Find the final volume of the gas. Assume
that helium behaves as an ideal gas. The
universal gas constant is 8.31451 J/K · mol.
Answer in units of m3
Find the work done by the gas.
Answer in units of kJ.
Find the thermal energy transferred.
Answer in units of kJ.
Answer:
I'm sorry I don't know an exact answer but try to use this, good luck!
Explanation:
Ideal gas law: P2*V2 = n*R*T
Find E*(s), with T = 0.2s, for E(s) = 1 - e^-TS/s middot 5S/(s + 1)(s + 3).
E*(s) = [1/0.4] / (s+1) - [1/2.4] / (s+3) + [5/2.4] / (s+0.2) - [5s/(s+1)(s+3)]
To find E*(s), we first need to find the Laplace transform of E(s):
E*(s) = L{E(s)} = L{1 - e^(-TS)} * 5s/(s+1)(s+3)
Using the formula for the Laplace transform of an exponential function, we have:
L{e^(-TS)} = 1/(s+T)
So:
E*(s) = (1/(s+T) - 1) * 5s/(s+1)(s+3)
Simplifying this expression, we have:
E*(s) = [5s/(s+1)(s+3)(s+T)] - [5s/(s+1)(s+3)]
Now we need to use partial fraction decomposition to split the first term into two fractions. We can write:
5s/(s+1)(s+3)(s+T) = A/(s+1) + B/(s+3) + C/(s+T)
Multiplying both sides by (s+1)(s+3)(s+T) and simplifying, we get:
5s = A(s+3)(s+T) + B(s+1)(s+T) + C(s+1)(s+3)
Plugging in s=-1, s=-3, and s=-T, we get a system of equations:
-15A = -4B - 2C
5A = -2B - 2C
5A = -4B - 3C
Solving this system, we get:
A = 1/(2T-4)
B = -1/(2T+2)
C = 5/(2T+2)
Substituting these values back into E*(s), we get:
E*(s) = [1/(2T-4)] / (s+1) - [1/(2T+2)] / (s+3) + [5/(2T+2)] / (s+T) - [5s/(s+1)(s+3)]
Finally, plugging in T=0.2s, we get:
E*(s) = [1/0.4] / (s+1) - [1/2.4] / (s+3) + [5/2.4] / (s+0.2) - [5s/(s+1)(s+3)]
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Why do slow wave sleep (0.5-2hz) and sleep spindles(10 hz) have different frequencies?
Both are thought to be generated by thalamic reticular nuclei.
Slow wave sleep (SWS) and sleep spindles are two distinct types of brain activity that occur during different stages of sleep.
While both are generated by the thalamic reticular nuclei, they have different frequencies because they serve different functions in the sleep cycle.
Slow wave sleep, also known as deep sleep, is characterized by low-frequency brain waves (0.5-2 Hz) that are synchronized and slow. During SWS, the brain is in a state of rest and repair, allowing the body to recover from the physical and mental stress of the day.
The slow waves of SWS are believed to reflect the slow oscillations of the thalamocortical network, which help to consolidate memories and promote brain plasticity.
On the other hand, sleep spindles are brief bursts of high-frequency brain waves (10 Hz) that occur during stage 2 of the sleep cycle. Sleep spindles are generated by the thalamic reticular nuclei and are thought to play a role in sensory processing, memory consolidation, and protection against external stimuli.
Unlike the slow waves of SWS, sleep spindles are believed to reflect the activity of inhibitory interneurons in the thalamus, which help to filter out irrelevant information and maintain sleep stability.
In summary, slow wave sleep and sleep spindles have different frequencies because they serve different functions in the sleep cycle. While slow waves promote rest and repair, sleep spindles promote sensory processing and memory consolidation.
The thalamic reticular nuclei generate both types of activity, but they do so through different mechanisms that reflect their distinct functions.
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what angle ( in radians ) is subtended from the center of a circle of radius 1.20 m by an arc of length 0.20 m?
The angle subtended by the arc is 1/6 radians, which is approximately equal to 0.524 radians or 30 degrees.
To find the angle subtended by an arc of length 0.20 m on a circle of radius 1.20 m, we can use the formula for the arc length of a circle:
Arc Length = Radius x Central Angle
We can rearrange this formula to solve for the central angle:
Central Angle = Arc Length / Radius
Plugging in the given values, we get:
Central Angle = 0.20 m / 1.20 m
Simplifying, we get:
Central Angle = 1/6 radians
Therefore, the angle subtended by the arc is 1/6 radians, which is approximately equal to 0.524 radians or 30 degrees.
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why is ism transparent at near-infrared and radio but opaque in visual wavelengths
The interstellar medium (ISM) is transparent at near-infrared and radio wavelengths but opaque in visual wavelengths due to the following reasons:
1. Scattering and absorption: Visual wavelengths are scattered and absorbed more by the dust particles and gas molecules in the ISM. This makes it difficult for light at visual wavelengths to pass through, causing the ISM to appear opaque. On the other hand, near-infrared and radio wavelengths are less affected by scattering and absorption, allowing them to pass through the ISM more easily, making it transparent at these wavelengths.
2. Dust particle size: The size of dust particles in the ISM is typically similar to the wavelength of visible light. This causes more scattering and absorption of visual wavelengths, whereas near-infrared and radio wavelengths, which are much larger, are less affected by these dust particles.
3. Energy levels of atoms and molecules: The ISM consists of various atoms and molecules, each having specific energy levels. Visual wavelengths correspond to the energy transitions of these atoms and molecules, causing them to absorb and re-emit this light, making the ISM opaque. Near-infrared and radio wavelengths do not correspond to these energy levels, allowing them to pass through without being absorbed or re-emitted.
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17. How much work is done to transfer 0.15 C of charge through a potential difference of 9V? e 173 O 0.17j 0 1.353 13.7 J 60
The amount of work done is 1.35 J.
How do you assess the volume of work completed?Calculating the Work Done on an Object: Formula and Terms. Work is the energy used by one thing to exert a force on another object in order to move it over a distance. The formula W=Fd W = F d determines the work performed on an item for a given amount of force, F, and a certain distance, d.
The formula work = charge x potential difference may be used to determine how much effort is required to transfer 0.15 C
of charge across a 9 V potential difference.
Work = 0.15 C x 9 V = 1.35 J is
the result of substituting the supplied values.
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A current-carrying ring of radius R-78.0 cm is centered on the cy-plane. At point P a distance z-56.3 cm along the z-axis, we have a magnetic field of B 2.50 μΤ toward the origin (the-2 direction). What is the current in the ring (for the sense, "clockwise" and "counter- clockwise" are meant as you look at it in this picture)? o 5.82 A counter-clockwise O 11.2 A counter-clockwise 11.2 A clockwise 5.82 A clockwise
The answer is 5.82 A counter-clockwise. The magnetic field m (B) at point P along the z-axis is given as 2.50 μT, and the distance z from the center of the current-carrying ring is 56.3 cm. The ring has a radius (R) of 78.0 cm. To find the current (I) in the ring, we can use Ampère's Law with the Biot-Savart Law.
The formula for the magnetic field B along the z-axis for a current-carrying ring is:
B = (μ₀ * I * R²) / (2 * (z² + R²)(3/2))
where μ₀ is the permeability of free space (4π × 10(-7) T m/A). We can rearrange the formula to solve for I:
I = (2 * B * (z² + R²) (3/2)) / (μ₀ * R²)
Now, plug in the given values:
I = (2 * 2.50 * 10(-6) T * (56.3 * 10(-2) m)² + (78.0 * 10(-2) m)²)(3/2)) / (4π × 10(-7) T m/A * (78.0 * 10(-2) m)²)
After solving the equation, we find that the current I ≈ 5.82 A. Since the magnetic field at point P is toward the origin (the -z direction), the current flows counter-clockwise when looking at the picture. Therefore, the answer is 5.82 A counter-clockwise.
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The answer is 5.82 A counter-clockwise. The magnetic field m (B) at point P along the z-axis is given as 2.50 μT, and the distance z from the center of the current-carrying ring is 56.3 cm. The ring has a radius (R) of 78.0 cm. To find the current (I) in the ring, we can use Ampère's Law with the Biot-Savart Law.
The formula for the magnetic field B along the z-axis for a current-carrying ring is:
B = (μ₀ * I * R²) / (2 * (z² + R²)(3/2))
where μ₀ is the permeability of free space (4π × 10(-7) T m/A). We can rearrange the formula to solve for I:
I = (2 * B * (z² + R²) (3/2)) / (μ₀ * R²)
Now, plug in the given values:
I = (2 * 2.50 * 10(-6) T * (56.3 * 10(-2) m)² + (78.0 * 10(-2) m)²)(3/2)) / (4π × 10(-7) T m/A * (78.0 * 10(-2) m)²)
After solving the equation, we find that the current I ≈ 5.82 A. Since the magnetic field at point P is toward the origin (the -z direction), the current flows counter-clockwise when looking at the picture. Therefore, the answer is 5.82 A counter-clockwise.
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