"Medical practices without scientific basis is the greatest form of quackery."
DO YOU AGREE ON THIS STATEMENT? YES OR NO? DEFEND YOUR ANSWER...
answer this please :)
I need it as soon as possible.....
thank you:)​

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Yes, Medical practices, almost always dealing with a person's well-being and life, must prioritize the safety of the person involved. Therefore, to remove or even lessen the risk to a person's life, all procedures done to them must always have a scientific backing, not one backed with beliefs and hoaxes.

What exactly is Quackery? It is  the characteristic practice of quacks or charlatans, who pretend to knowledge and skill that they do not possess, particularly in medicine. The quack makes exaggerated claims about his or her ability to heal disease, generally for financial gain.

The conditions usually treated by quacks are those for which specific methods of treatment have not yet been developed; those particularly feared, such as cancer, sexually transmitted diseases, and, in the past, tuberculosis; those with frequent remissions and recurrences, such as arthritis, neuritis, and migraine; and mental disorders. People yield to quackery in times of great stress, pain, or sorrow. In the absence of exact knowledge, and sometimes even in its presence in the face of insurmountable difficulties, the credulous person craves a miracle and is ready to be overwhelmed by the personality and the claims of the charlatan.

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Related Questions

does sympathetic nervous system increase body temperature

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The sympathetic nervous system is continuously monitoring body temperature and initiating appropriate motor responses

rn targeted medical surgical neurosensory and musculoskeletal online practice 2019

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Answer:

Explanation:

A nurse is planning care for a client who has. closed traumatic brain injury from a fall and is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following interventions is the nurses priority?

A 73-year-old woman is experiencing recurrent constipation. The woman reports to the nurse that she experiences constipation despite the fact that she takes docusate on a daily basis and performs cleansing enemas several times weekly. How should the nurse best respond to this client's statement

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Answer:

Taking too many laxatives can make your bowels dependent on them, making you more susceptible to constipation.

Explanation:

"The woman reports to the nurse that she experiences constipation despite the fact that she takes docusate on a daily basis and performs cleansing enemas several times weekly."

docusate is a type of a laxative, which she also states that she takes it everyday and performs a cleansing enemas several times weekly, and taking too many laxatives is not a good idea, as it makes you more susceptible to constipation.

If you have had the mumps once, you cannot get them again. This is an example of

Natural active immunity
Artificial active immunity
Natural passive immunity
Artificial passive immunity

Answers

Answer:

Natural active immunity

Explanation:

8. What type of doctor would you be if you completed a bachelor's degree, medical school, and a
medical residency. (1 point)

• phD
• MD
• EdD
• all of the above

Answers

Hello there!

The answer to your question is MD.

If you complete a bachelor's degree, medical school, and a medical residency, you wil be an MD.

Hope this helps!

~Just a joyful girl

you demonstrate high-quality cpr by keeping interruptions in cpr to less than _____ seconds.

Answers

You demonstrate high-quality CPR by keeping interruptions in CPR to less than TEN (10) seconds.

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is a fundamental medical technique used during emergency situations.

This technique (cardiopulmonary resuscitation ) can save a life when it is applied properly.

High-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation includes a chest compression fraction higher than 80% of the compression rate of 100-120/min.

In conclusion, you demonstrate high-quality CPR by keeping interruptions in CPR to less than TEN (10) seconds.

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hyper-igm syndrome is a rare genetic disease caused by a loss-of-function mutation in the gene that codes for the cd40l protein. what are the two most likely direct effects of cd40l deficiency?

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Can you maybe show us a picture?

what is the relationship of the arms to the body’s core?

Answers

This ratio is approximately a one to one ratio, meaning that a person's arm span is about equal to their height. There are many more human body ratios; some are independent of age, and others change as we grow from a baby to an adult I hope this is correct

Based on your understanding of the scenario, which o the abbreviations mentioned primarily affect the lungs? Check

all that apply.

OMS

URI

IBD

DAD

ОВА

PE

Answers

Answer:

12

Explanation:

which client statement indicates a good understanding of the nutritional modifications needed to manage hypertension?

Answers

Answer:

"Limiting my salt intake to 2 grams per day will improve my blood pressure."

Explanation:

Which client statement indicates a good understanding of the nutritional modifications needed to manage hypertension?

"I should eliminate caffeine from my diet to lower my blood pressure."

"A glass of red wine each day will lower my blood pressure."

"If I include less fat in my diet, I'll lower my blood pressure."

"Limiting my salt intake to 2 grams per day will improve my blood pressure."

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Miss Hawaii

how soon after laparoscopic gallbladder surgery can you go back to work

Answers

Answer:

6 to 8 weeks

Explanation:

Most people can go back to work or their normal routine in 1-2 weeks. But it may take 4-6 weeks for an open surgery.


Aggressive debridement should be avoided in which of the following types
of wounds that presents with necrosis?

Answers

Answer: This method uses the body's own enzymes and moisture beneath a dressing, and non-viable tissue becomes liquefied. Maintaining a balance in moisture is important. Dressing frequency and absorbency. Dressing types commonly used are hydrocolloids, hydrogels, and transparent films (semi-occlusive and occlusive).

Explanation:

Hope this helps!!

Medic gaming?
Medic gaming.
Medic gaming!

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Answer:

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what????????????? do u mean???????

The__has defined evidence-based practice as "the integration of the best available research with clinical expertise in the context of patient characteristics, culture, and preferences."

O American Psychological Association
O American Medical Association
O Society of Pain Management
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Answer:

What is American Psychological Association

Explanation:

term for the biceps brachii during forearm flexion

Answers

Answer:

What is prime mover (agonist) term for the biceps brachii during forearm flexion. synergist. term that describes the relation of brachioradialis to biceps brachii during forearm flexion. antagonist.

Explanation:

The term for the biceps brachii during forearm flexion is the agonist. In the context of muscle movements, the agonist is the muscle responsible for creating a specific movement.

When you flex your forearm, the biceps brachii contracts and shortens, causing movement. The biceps brachii is located on the front of the upper arm and is a two-headed muscle that crosses both the shoulder and elbow joints.

During forearm flexion, the biceps brachii acts as the primary muscle responsible for generating the force required to lift the forearm towards the upper arm, allowing you to perform actions like bending your elbow or lifting objects closer to your body.

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what are the four organs of the integumentary system

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Answer:

The integumentary system is an organ system consisting of the skin, hair, nails, and exocrine glands.

Explanation:

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Miss Hawaii

what is the muscular layer of the heart wall called

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Answer:

The muscle layer of the heart is termed the myocardium and is made up of cardiomyocytes. The myocardium is found in the walls of all four chambers of the heart, though it is thicker in the ventricles and thinner in the atria

Explanation:

Which of the fallowing statements is true
-Bacterial infections should be treated with anitfungal medication
-viral infections can be treated with antibiotics
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-viral infections are usually treated with rest and fluid replacement

Answers

Viral infections can be treated with antibiotics

what happens in the uterus that differentiates the fetus into either male or female?

Answers

Answer:

hope this helps <3

Explanation:

The fetus appears to be sexually indifferent, looking neither like a male or a female. Over the next five weeks, the fetus begins producing hormones that cause its sex organs to grow into either male or female organs. This process is called sexual differentiation.

X- or Y-chromosome sperm have an equal chance of fertilizing an ovum. If sperm fuses an ovum, the zygote becomes masculine. When sperm-carrying X combines an ovum, a female zygote develops.

Which body system differentiates a male from a female?

The only human organ system that differs significantly between males and females is the reproductive system. Male and female embryonic structures that would eventually form the reproductive system begin similarly, but by birth, the reproductive systems have differentiated.

At fertilization, the embryo's chromosomal sex is determined. Humans need 6 weeks to show the earliest evidence of sex distinction, though.

An ovum has an equal chance of being fertilized by X- or Y-chromosome sperm. The zygote develops into a male when Y sperm combine with an ovum. A female zygote forms when an ovum and sperm-carrying X unite.

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research has found that the nucleus accumbens and the amygdala, both of which are part of the ________, are brain areas that are particularly important in sexual motivation.

Answers

Answer:

What is the basal forebrain.

Explanation:

The Nucleus accumbens and the Amygdala are the part of the Limbic System.

What is the Limbic System?

The limbic system is the part of the brain involved in behavioral and emotional responses, especially when it comes to behaviors that is required for survival ,feeding, reproduction and caring for our young, and fight or flight responses.

The limbic system is located within the cerebrum of the brain, immediately below the temporal lobes, and are buried under the cerebral cortex (the cortex is the outermost part of the brain).

Limbic system comprises of:

- Limbic cortex

- Hippocampal formation

- Amygdala

- Septal area

- Hypothalamus

What is Nucleus Accumbens?

The nucleus accumbens is a region in the basal forebrain rostral to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus.

The nucleus accumbens has a significant role in the cognitive processing of motivation, aversion, reward , and reinforcement learning hence, it has a significant role in addiction.

In addition, part of the nucleus accumbens core is centrally involved in the induction of slow-wave sleep. The nucleus accumbens plays a lesser role in processing fear (a form of aversion), impulsivity, and the placebo effect. It is involved in the encoding of new motor programs as well.

What is Amygdala?

The amygdala is an almond-shaped structure, located right next to the hippocampus.

The main function of the amygdala is in emotional responses, including feelings of happiness, fear, anger, and anxiety.

This area is also key for the formation of new memories. The amygdala interacts with the hippocampus by attaching emotional content to memories.

It has a role in how memorable memories can be – memories that have strong emotional components tend to stick, rather than those with little emotional content. ‘Fear learning’ is also an element of the amygdala.

Damage to the amygdala can result in more aggression, irritability, loss of control of emotions, and deficits in recognizing emotions, especially recognizing fear.

There are also links of amygdala differences in those with Autism, depression, posttraumatic stress disorder, and bipolar disorder.

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what two types of defects does a cancerous cell possess?

Answers

Answer:

Cancerous cells possess defects that make proteins required for cell growth active, and tumor suppressor genes inactive.

Explanation:

a/an drug is administered to treat symptoms of severe disorders of thinking and mood that are associated with neurological and psychiatric illnesses such as schizophrenia, mania, and delusional disorders.

Answers

Answer:

What is Antipsychotics

Explanation:

Antipsychotics are a class of drugs used commonly to treat psychotic disorders -- conditions in which thinking can be irrational, and people have false beliefs (delusions) or perceptions (hallucinations) -- and sometimes to treat mood disorders such as bipolar disorder or major depression.

14. A child in a poor country has not had sufficient protein in her diet for an extended period of time. What classic sign of this
form of malnutrition will she most likely exhibit?
A. constant thirst
B. extremely thin appearance
C. distended abdomen
D. sunken eyes

Answers

Answer:

A:

Explanation:

Having less protein makes you want to have more liquids to the fact that protein has healthy and unhealthy fats in it.

Which type of glia is found outside the CNS?
Schwann cells
microglia
astrocytes
O oligodendrocytes

Answers

Answer:

What are Schwann cells

Explanation:

Primarily, glial cells provide support for the neurons. Think of them as a secretarial pool for your nervous system, plus the janitorial and maintenance staff. They may not do the big jobs, but without them, those big jobs would never get done.

Your central nervous system (CNS) is made up of your brain and the nerves of your spinal column.

Five types that are present in your CNS are:1  

Astrocytes

Oligodendrocytes

Microglia

Ependymal cells

Radial glia

You also have glial cells in your peripheral nervous system (PNS), which comprises the nerves in your extremities, away from the spine. Two types of glial cells there are:

 Schwann cells

Satellite cells

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Miss Hawaii

The glial cells known as Schwann cells create the myelin coating on axons that leave the brain, hence option A is correct.

What is a type of glia?

The most prevalent form of glial cells in the peripheral nervous system is Schwann cells (SCs). Outside the central nervous system, ganglia are collections of nerve cell bodies.

These structures contain groups of nerve cell bodies whose axons extend to various regions of the organ. Myelinating and non myelinating cells are the two main groups of SCs in the adult nervous system.

However, the presence of astrocytes significantly affects the degree of play crucial roles in the growth, upkeep, operation, and regeneration of peripheral nerves.

Therefore, Schwann cell contact with CNS axons by redefining the CNS-PNS (peripheral nervous system) border in a lesioned CNS and inhibiting Schwann cell invasion, hence option A is correct.

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curare blocks action at acetylcholine synapses and causes paralysis. this drug is an example of an

Answers

Answer:Antagonist, which is a drug that inhibits the production of a chemical in the body. This is the opposite of an agonist drug.

at what bac level is an individual considered intoxicated if they are over the age of 21?

Answers

Answer:

The BAC is calculated from the concentration of alcohol in the breath. In most states, the legally-defined level of alcohol intoxication is a BAC of 0.08%.

which term refers to distention of the renal calyces and pelvis?

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The correct answer is Hydronephrosis
The correct answer to this question is hydronephrosis

the pharynx connects the nasal cavity and oral cavity at the back of the throat and leads to the larynx. true or false?

Answers

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

The Pharynx Connects the Nasal and Oral Cavities to the Larynx and Esophagus. The pharynx, or throat, is shaped like a funnel. During respiration, it conducts air between the larynx and trachea (or “windpipe”) and the nasal and the oral cavities.

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Miss Hawaii

Upon the release of renin, is produced and stimulates vasoconstriction and the release of aldosterone. FSH and LH are examples of hormones, which target the ovaries or testes. Overeating, or , is a sign associated with diabetes mellitus. Overproduction of urine, or polyuria, is a sign of diabetes mellitus. An enzyme that degrades second messengers like cAMP or cGMP is

Answers

Answer:

Overproduction of urine, or polyuria, is a sign of diabetes mellitus.

Explanation:

what food can eat on the morning of colonoscopy prep day

Answers

Answer:

Water can get boring, so keep a variety of clear liquids on hand. On the day before your colonoscopy — when you're restricted to clear liquids — you can have popsicles, Jell-O, clear broth, coffee or tea (without milk or creamer), soft drinks, Italian ice, or Gatorade. But take nothing with red, blue, or purple dye.

Explanation: Hope this helps at least a little bit :)