Một ông 43 tuổi đến khám tổng quát. Phân tích nước tiểu thấy có đường niệu. Bạn vừa biết có một test T dung phát hiện bệnh tiểu đường như sau: 138 cho T+ trên 150 người bị tiểu đường và 24 cho T+ trên 150 người không bị tiểu đường. a) Tìm độ nhạy, độ chuyên, dương giả, âm giả của T b) Bằng phương pháp thử máu (T’) có độ nhạy 0.8; độ chuyên 0.96; đem áp dụng cho hai nhóm trên thì giá trị đoán trước là bao nhiêu nêu T’ dương tính. c) Với bệnh nhân này, nếu T dương tính bạn cho là có khả năng 90% bị tiểu đường còn nếu T' cũng dương tính thì khả năng bị tiểu đường là bao nhiêu

Answer: X=4/2x+3

Step-by-step explanation:

I just know

97.07%

Step-by-step explanation:

total number of students is

696+21=717

696/717×100=97.07

answer is 97.07%

Answer:

11400000

Step-by-step explanation:

1 whale = 380000 lbs

30 whale weighs 380000×30

30 whales = 11400000

Answer:

(A) D.

(B) Cosh(-x)= e^-x+e^x

                            2

and the last box on the bottom would be 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

162

Step-by-step explanation:

4.5x9x4

Answer:

Not proportional

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because there is not an equal about of feet per day

Answer:

1 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

First convert 1/2 into twelfths.

1/2= 6/12

Then add:

6/12 + 8/12= 14/12= 7/6= 1 1/6

Hope this helps! :)

Hi there!  

»»————-　★　————-««

I believe your answer is:  

[tex]\frac{7}{6}[/tex]

»»————-　★　————-««  

Here’s why:  

⸻⸻⸻⸻

[tex]\frac{8}{12}+ \frac{1}{2}\\\rule{150}{0.5}\\\rightarrow \frac{8}{12}=\frac{8/4}{12/4}=\frac{2}{3}\\\\\rightarrow\frac{2}{3}+ \frac{1}{2}\\\\rule{150}{0.5}\\\rightarrow LCM(3,2): 6\\\\\rightarrow \frac{2}{3} =\frac{2*2}{3*2} =\frac{4}{6}\\\\\rightarrow \frac{1}{2}=\frac{1*3}{2*3}=\frac{3}{6} \\\rule{150}{0.5}\\\rightarrow \frac{4}{6} +\frac{3}{6}\\\\\rightarrow\boxed{\frac{7}{6}}[/tex]

⸻⸻⸻⸻

»»————-　★　————-««  

Hope this helps you. I apologize if it’s incorrect.  

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1.)The 4th picture will be the correct one.

Step-by-step explanation:

The first picture shows the graph of f(x) and in the options there are pictures of graph of g(x) = f(x) -1

So, it is clear from the equation of the functions that the graph of f(x) and g(x) will be similar but the the y value in g(x) will be 1 less than the y value in f(x) corresponding to a certain x value.

So, the graph will translate down by 1 unit.

Therefore, the 4th picture will be the correct one.

2.)-(2^x) - 1 will have a y-intercept of -1-1 = -2, a horizontal asymptote of y=-1, and will be decreasing everywhere. The third selection is the graph that has these characteristics.

Answer:

graph 4

Step-by-step explanation: because I love you <3 ;)

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

27300 * (1-6.1%)^n = 22100,

n∈(3,4)

when n = 3,≈22603;

when n = 4,≈21224;

so choose n = 3.

Therefore, it takes  car to depreciate to this amount is [tex]3[/tex].

What is the simplification?

Simplification is reducing the expression/fraction/problem in a simpler form. It makes the problem easy with calculations and solving.

Here given that,

A new car sells for $[tex]27,300[/tex]. It exponentially depreciates at a rate of [tex]6.1[/tex]% to $[tex]22,100[/tex].

So, the equation is

[tex]27300(1-6.1)^n=22100\\\\[/tex]

when [tex]n[/tex] belongs to [tex](3,4)[/tex]

when [tex]n=3\\[/tex]

The equation would be

[tex]27300(1-6.1)^3=22100\\\\=22603[/tex]

When

[tex]n=4\\27300(1-6.1)^4=22100\\=21224[/tex]

So, the time it takes to depricate to the given amount is [tex]22603[/tex] when [tex]n=3[/tex].

Hence, it takes  car to depreciate to this amount is [tex]3[/tex].

To know more about the simplification

https://brainly.com/question/12795317

#SPJ2

For your question you can try option #3

Answer:

I'm sorry if its incorrect

Answer:

x=6

Step-by-step explanation:

answer is in the photo

Answer:

b, d, c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C.

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=x²-x

#CarryOnLearning

hopeithelps,,thanks

Answer:

all three pairs of sides are congruent

the answer to this question is -6&5

Answer:

500, 300

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the rounding is for nearest 100,

635-124

600-100

500

864-612

900-600

300

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

What is the HCF of two consecutive odd numbers?

The HCF of two consecutive odd number is 1.

Answer:

2 7/16

Step-by-step explanation:

2 3/4 - 5/16 → 11/4 - 5/16 (convert 2 3/4 into an improper or top-heavy fraction)

11/4 - 5/16 → 44/16 - 5/16 (multiply 11/4 by 4/4 to make a common denominator)

44/16 - 5/16 = 39/16 (Subtract 44 - 5 = 39)

Simplify (convert back into mixed number)

39/16 = 2 7/16

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Your answer is A.

Anytime you have a variable or something that changes such as the month that is a variable so that means its going to be your x/m in this case

Answer:

You would need 23 inches to build it

Answer:

The second snack bar  (34%)..

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert all to %:

0.2  * 100 = 20%

6/20 = 30%

13/50 = 26%

34%   <-------- This one.

Answer:

34%

Step-by-step explanation:

34%=34/100 =O.34 which is the greatest decimal compared to the rest

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Solving for f:

Answer:

22. R2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

22 R2.

Explanation:

I used the method of long division.

Please mark BRAINLIEST, I'll follow you.

Answer:

21/40.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 3 geometry and 7 algebra books.

If the geometry book is drawn first probability = 3/10

If the second is algebra P = 7/9.

If the third is algebra P = 6/8 = 3/4.

So the probability  of all three being drawn in this order = 3/10 * 7/9 * 3/4

= 63/360

= 7/40.

Now there are a total of 3 ways in the order they are drawn, That is:

GAA

AGA

AAG.

So the required probability = 3 * 7/40

= 21/40.

Answer:

(a) is correct answer but it is w.r.t addition

not multiplycation.

Step-by-step explanation:

may it will help you.

mark me brainlist plz.

We want to find the rate of change of the surface for a cube of increasing volume.

When the side length is equal to 20 inches, the surface area is increasing at a rate of 439.29 in^2 per minute.

We know that for a cube of side length S, the volume is:

V = S^3

And the surface area is:

A = 6*S^2

Here we know that the volume increases at a rate of 12in^3/min.

Because the volume depends on the side length cubed, we can say that the side length increases at a rate of:

∛(12in^3)/min = 2.29 in/min

Then, as a function of time t in minutes, we can write the side length as:

S(t) = (2.29 in/min)*t

Then the surface area equation is:

A(t) = 6*((2.29 in/min)*t)*((2.29 in/min)*t)

A(t)  = (31.46 in^2/min^2)*t^2

The rate of change is given by direct differentiation, we get:

A'(t) = 2*(31.46 in^2/min^2)*t

Now we need to evaluate this in the value of t such that the side length is equal to 20 in:

S(t) = 20in = (2.29 in/min)*t

         (20in)/(2.29 in/min) = t = 8.73 min

Then we will get:

A'(8.73min) =  2*(31.46 in^2/min^2)*8.73min = 439.29 in^2/min

This means that when the side length is equal to 20 inches, the surface area is increasing at a rate of 439.29 in^2 per minute.

If you want to learn more, you can read:

https://brainly.com/question/23483858

(ii) 3% of students failed all three courses, 12% failed economics and mathematics, 9% in math and business, and 10% in econ and business. In other words, the students in these groups failed at least the two mentioned courses. Then 12% - 3% = 9% failed only econ and math but not business; 9% - 3% = 6% failed math and business but not econ; and 10% - 3% = 7% failed econ and business but not math. These groups are mutually exclusive, so the total percentage of students that failed exactly two courses is (ii) 9% + 6% + 7% = 22%.

32% failed econ, which means 32% - 12% - 10% + 3% = 13% failed only econ. Similarly, 46% failed business, so 46% - 9% - 10% + 3% = 30% failed only business. But we don't know how many students failed math, so we can't determine how many failed only math... And consequently we can't determine the proportion of students that make up the other categories.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The most accurate ratio of pounds to dollars will be found using the given numbers that have the most significant figures. Those are found on the last row of the table:

  pounds/dollar = 34.60/50 = 0.692

To find the other table values, multiply the dollar amounts by this constant of proportionality. The problem statement tells you to round the result to hundredths.

  $5 ⇒ 5.00 × 0.692 = 3.46 pounds

   $10 ⇒ 10.00 × 0.692 = 6.92 pounds

  $20 ⇒ 20.00 × 0.692 = 13.84 pounds

_____

You can also fill in the table by recognizing that $5 is one tenth of $50, so the number of pounds will be one tenth of 34.60 = 3.46. Then each of the following rows doubles the amount on the previous row.

Answer:

I'm pretty sure 70 liters

Step-by-step explanation:

because 60÷10=6

so 70÷10=7