PLSSS ANSWER ASAP!! || Draw a zoom in of a snot worm. Things to think about/include:
- are the snot worms octopus and ellpout doing photosynthesis or cellular respiration?
- where are the inputs coming from?
- what are the outputs?
Answers
The zoom in of a snot worm is in the image attached.
The snot worms, octopus, and eelpout are performing cellular respiration. Inputs include oxygen and organic molecules, and outputs include carbon dioxide, water, and energy in the form of ATP.
In cellular respiration, the process by which cells break down organic molecules to release energy, the inputs are typically oxygen and organic molecules such as glucose. In the case of the snot worms, octopus, and eelpout, they likely obtain these inputs from their food sources. The process of cellular respiration produces energy in the form of ATP, as well as carbon dioxide and water as waste products.
Photosynthesis, on the other hand, is the process by which organisms convert light energy into chemical energy, and typically involves the uptake of carbon dioxide and release of oxygen. However, snot worms, octopus, and eelpout are not capable of photosynthesis, as they lack the necessary pigments and organelles to perform this process.
Overall, the snot worms, octopus, and eelpout are likely consuming organic matter for energy through the process of cellular respiration, taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide and water as waste products.
To learn more about snot worms, here
https://brainly.com/question/12980616
#SPJ1
Related Questions
What is a chaperone protein that functions to keep mitochondrial proteins denatured would be located in the cytosol
Answers
The chaperone protein that functions to keep mitochondrial proteins denatured and is located in the cytosol is called Hsp70.
Hsp70 is a heat shock protein that assists in the folding and transport of proteins, including those destined for the mitochondria. It helps maintain the denatured state of mitochondrial proteins in the cytosol until they are ready to be transported and folded properly within the mitochondria.
In addition, Hsp70 is also involved in refolding of misfolded proteins and prevention of protein aggregation in the cytosol, which helps to maintain proper protein homeostasis in the cell. Dysfunction of Hsp70 has been implicated in various diseases, including neurodegenerative disorders and cancer, highlighting its critical role in cellular processes.
To know more about "Heat shock protein" refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/28503067#
#SPJ11
Question 5 of 10
Which is true of Pluto?
Answers
where do the enzymes necessary for endosome maturation and endolysosome formation come from? (mark all that apply) a.the cell surface b.the golgi c.the cytoplasm d.retrograde vesicular transport e.the lysosome
Answers
The enzymes necessary for endosome maturation and endolysosome formation come from sources b. the Golgi, d. retrograde vesicular transport, and e. the lysosome.
Endosome maturation and endolysosome formation involve a series of events where endosomes and lysosomes fuse to degrade cellular material. The enzymes required for this process are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum and then transported to the Golgi apparatus (b) for modification and sorting. Retrograde vesicular transport (d) also plays a role in delivering enzymes to endosomes by allowing the retrieval of certain components from the trans-Golgi network. Lastly, the lysosome (e) itself contains hydrolytic enzymes that are essential for the degradation of cellular material within endolysosomes.
Thus, the enzymes necessary for endosome maturation and endolysosome formation are derived from the Golgi, retrograde vesicular transport, and the lysosome.
Learn more about maturation here:
https://brainly.com/question/30506825
#SPJ11
a mutation changes a codon from a ctt to a ctc. both of these codons code for leucine. what type of mutation is this? synonymous non-synonymous nonsense insertion
Answers
Option a is correct. A mutation changes a codon from a ctt to a ctc. both of these codon's code for leucine. The type of mutation is synonymous mutation.
This is a kind of point mutation that does not affect the protein's amino acid sequence. The DNA sequence mutation here does not affect the structure or function of the protein because both the original codon "CTT" and the mutant codon "CTC" code for the amino acid leucine.
A premature stop codon is introduced by nonsense mutations, which results in the creation of a shortened protein that is probably not functional.
Insertion mutations, which occur when one or more nucleotides are added to the DNA sequence, can modify the reading frame of the mRNA and frameshifts, both of which have a significant impact on the amino acid.
Learn more about Synonymous mutation
https://brainly.com/question/30978486
#SPJ4
Complete question
A mutation changes a codon from a ctt to a ctc. both of these codon's code for leucine. what type of mutation is this?
a. synonymous mutation
b. non-synonymous mutation
c. nonsense mutation
d. insertion mutation
Anatomical structures that show similar function but dissimilar embryonic and evolutionary relationships are 10 A) paraphyletic B) homoplasious 15 C) monophyletic D) homologous
Answers
The anatomical structures that show similar function but dissimilar embryonic and evolutionary relationships are homoplasious.The correct answer is b.
Homoplasious structures, also known as analogous structures, are those that share a common function but have different origins in terms of their embryonic development and evolutionary history. This is in contrast to homologous structures, which have similar embryonic origins and evolutionary relationships but may serve different functions.
The presence of homoplasious structures can be explained by a process called convergent evolution. In convergent evolution, unrelated species living in similar environments independently evolve similar structures or features to adapt to the same environmental challenges. This results in organisms with different evolutionary backgrounds having analogous structures that serve the same or similar functions.
For example, the wings of birds and insects serve the same function, allowing both to fly. However, birds and insects have different embryonic origins and evolutionary relationships, making their wings homoplasious structures. The development of these structures in each species is a result of convergent evolution, as both groups adapted to the need for flight in their respective environments.
In summary, homoplasious structures are anatomical features that have similar functions but dissimilar embryonic and evolutionary relationships. These structures arise through convergent evolution, as unrelated species independently develop analogous features to adapt to similar environmental challenges.
To know more about homoplasious refer here:
brainly.com/question/29570150
#SPJ11
at the molecular level, a gene is defined as an organized unit of DNA sequences that enables a segment of DNA to be transcribed into ____, resulting in the formation of a functional product
a. RNA
b. peptide
c. genes
d. DNA
Answers
At the molecular level, a gene is defined as an organized unit of DNA sequences that enables a segment of DNA to be transcribed into RNA, resulting in the formation of a functional product. The correct answer is A.
At the molecular level, a gene is defined as an organized unit of DNA sequences that enables a segment of DNA to be transcribed into RNA, resulting in the formation of a functional product.
This process, known as gene expression, is the fundamental process by which genetic information is used to create the proteins and other molecules that perform the functions necessary for life.
During transcription, an RNA polymerase enzyme reads the DNA sequence of a gene and uses it as a template to synthesize a complementary RNA molecule.
This RNA molecule can then be translated into a peptide (i.e., a chain of amino acids) by ribosomes in a process called translation. The resulting peptide can fold into a functional protein with a specific shape and function.
Genes can also encode other functional products, such as non-coding RNAs that play regulatory roles in gene expression.
However, the primary function of genes is to provide instructions for the synthesis of functional products, such as peptides and proteins, through the process of gene expression. Hence, the correct answer in A.
For more such answers on RNA
https://brainly.com/question/28073947
#SPJ11
what is the maximum possible number of different alleles in an individual for a trait at a particular locus if the population consists of 235 diploid organisms?
Answers
The maximum possible number of different alleles in an individual for a trait at a particular locus in a population of 235 diploid organisms is 2.
To determine the maximum possible number of different alleles we should follow these steps:-
1. Understand that diploid organisms have two sets of chromosomes, which means they have two alleles at each locus.
2. Multiply the number of organisms by the number of alleles per individual: 235 diploid organisms x 2 alleles per individual = 470 alleles in the population.
3. To maximize the number of different alleles, assume that each allele in the population is unique. Since each individual can only have two alleles, the maximum possible number of different alleles in an individual is 2.
So, the maximum possible number of different alleles in an individual for a trait at a particular locus in a population of 235 diploid organisms is 2.
Learn more about diploid: https://brainly.com/question/21345460
#SPJ11
a )Describe one effect of training on the muscles of the heart rate
B) Explain why this change in the heart muscles can improve an athlete's performance.
C)When running, an athlete breathes more quickly and takes larger breaths than at rest. Give a reason
Answers
a) Training can lead to an increase in the size and strength of the heart muscles, specifically the left ventricle, which is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body. This effect is known as cardiac hypertrophy, and it can lead to a decrease in resting heart rate and an increase in the heart's stroke volume, or the amount of blood pumped per heartbeat.
b) This change in the heart muscles can improve an athlete's performance because a larger left ventricle with increased strength can pump more blood with each contraction, delivering more oxygen and nutrients to the working muscles during exercise. Additionally, the decreased resting heart rate indicates that the heart is working more efficiently, which allows the athlete to maintain a higher intensity of exercise for a longer period of time without experiencing fatigue.
c) When running, an athlete's muscles require more oxygen to produce energy than when at rest. To meet this increased demand for oxygen, the athlete breathes more quickly and takes larger breaths. The lungs take in more oxygen, which diffuses into the bloodstream and is transported to the working muscles. Additionally, the increased breathing rate helps to remove carbon dioxide, a byproduct of cellular respiration, from the body. This helps to regulate the pH of the body fluids and prevent respiratory acidosis, which can impair the body's ability to perform at high intensities. Overall, the increased breathing rate and depth during running help to support the athlete's energy needs during exercise
A patient got infection with an unknown bacteria. The microbiologist from the pathological lab isolated the causative bacteria which can be called as a. Psychrofiles b. Barophiles c. Thermophiles d. Mesophiles
Answers
The microbiologist from the pathological lab isolated the causative bacteria which can be called mesophiles (Option D).
Cаusаtive agent meаns аny virus, bаcterium, fungus, pаrаsitic аgent or microorgаnism which is directly or indirectly responsible for cаusing the аpplicаble diseаse. The causative bacteria isolated from the patient's infection could be classified as psychrophiles, barophiles, thermophiles, or mesophiles. These terms refer to different categories of bacteria based on their preferred environmental conditions. Further analysis and testing would be needed to determine the exact classification of the isolated bacteria.
Learn more about bacteria: https://brainly.com/question/11688275
#SPJ11
in response to a warming climate the observed trend for a variety of midlatitude species is
a. moving south and to lower elevations. b. moving south and to higher elevations.
c. moving south and to lower elevations. d. moving south and to higher elevations.
Answers
In response to a warming climate, the observed trend for a variety of midlatitude species is: b. moving poleward (often north in the Northern Hemisphere) and to higher elevations.
As the climate warms, species may shift their ranges to remain within their optimal temperature and moisture conditions. This generally means moving northward or to higher elevations where temperatures are cooler. However, the direction and magnitude of these shifts can vary depending on the species and the specific climate conditions in different regions. Overall, understanding how species are responding to climate change is important for predicting and mitigating its effects on biodiversity and ecosystems.
Know more about warming climate here:
https://brainly.com/question/24920322
#SPJ11
Lions live in groups prides. The dominant male lions sometimes chase away some of the male Cubs as they approach sexual maturity. Why do you think this is so?
Answers
Male lions chase away young male cubs as they reach puberty and sexual maturity for several reasons:
1. To reduce competition for females. The dominant males want to ensure they can mate with the pride's females without competition from other adult males. Young males entering adulthood pose a threat to their access to females.
2. To assert dominance. Forcing subordinate males to leave the pride is a way for the alpha males to reassert their dominant status and authority over the group.
3. To limit potential challenges. By expelling younger males, the dominant males reduce the chances of a direct challenge to their leadership of the pride. Younger males are more likely to challenge older, established males.
4. Resource limitation. Prides have a limited capacity for providing enough resources for all males. Expelling younger males helps ensure that the limited resources go to the prime breeding males.
5. Inbreeding avoidance. By dispersing younger males, the pride avoids the risks of inbreeding by preventing close relatives from mating within the small pride group.
So in summary, male lions employ these tactics to maximize their reproductive success, maintain their dominance, control access to scarce resources, and promote genetic diversity. Expelling younger males serves the self-interests of the pride's alpha males.
While running to class, Jennifer slipped and skinned her knee. The wound appeared superficial, and there is no bleeding. Based on your knowledge about the integument, you determine that the wound penetrated Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a not even the epidermis b all layers of the epidermis, dermis, and the subcutaneous layer с all layers of the epidermis and part of the dermis d layers of the epidermis but not the dermis
Answers
Answer:
D should be the right answer
Explanation:
Answer:
d. layers of the epidermis but not the dermis
Explanation:
From the given information we know that there is a wound but no blood. This means that the epidermis is surely damaged, because it is the top layer of the skin. Additionally, the epidermis is avascular, meaning it does not have any type of blood vessels. This information rules out letter a.
Underneath the epidermis is the dermis. However, this layer is vascular. This means it does have blood vessels, and if it becomes damaged, blood will come out. Hence, it cannot be letter c.
Then under the dermis is the subcutaneous layer. This layer is also vascular, which means it cannot be the answer either. Additionally, this layer could not be damaged if the dermis was not damaged. You would have to go through the epidermis and dermis first.
Streak Plate Method Student assignment: 1. You are given with a "pure" culture of E.coli. a. What can you do to verify its purity? b. If the culture was not pure what would you notice? 2. When you observed your streak plate there was lot of undesired colonies growing in it? What might be the common mode of contamination? 3. What is meant by a Bacterial Colony? 4. What is meant by Bacterial Growing Media? 5. After streak plate is done the plates are incubated upside down. What happens if it is kept upright for incubation?
Answers
1a. To verify the purity of the E.coli culture, the streak plate method can be used. 1b. If the culture was not pure, different colonies would be noticed on the plate. 2. The common mode of contamination is usually due to improper sterilization of equipment or improper handling of the culture. 3. A bacterial colony is a visible group of bacteria grown on a solid media surface. 4. Bacterial growing media is a substance used to support the growth of bacteria. 5. If the plate is kept upright during incubation, the condensation that forms can fall back onto the colonies and disrupt their growth.
1a. To verify the purity of the E.coli culture, you can use the streak plate method. This involves streaking the culture onto a plate with a sterile loop and then incubating the plate. If all the resulting colonies have the same morphology (appearance), then the culture is likely pure.
1b. If the culture was not pure, different colonies would be noticed growing on the plate, indicating contamination.
2. The common mode of contamination for undesired colonies growing on a streak plate is usually due to improper sterilization of equipment or improper handling of the culture. This can introduce other bacteria or fungi into the plate.
3. A bacterial colony is a visible group of bacteria grown on a solid media surface.
4. Bacterial growing media is a substance used to support the growth of bacteria. This can include things like agar, broth, or other nutrient-rich substances.
5. If the plate is kept upright during incubation, the condensation that forms can fall back onto the colonies and disrupt their growth. This can result in uneven or incomplete growth on the plate.
Learn more about Bacterial: https://brainly.com/question/20488946
#SPJ11
when amino acids are degraded in cells, into what intermediates(s) of the aerobic respiration process are the carbon skeletons of amino acids primarily converted?
Answers
When amino acids are degraded in cells, the carbon skeletons of amino acids are primarily converted into intermediates of the aerobic respiration process.
These intermediates include pyruvate, acetyl-CoA, and intermediates of the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle or TCA cycle), such as α-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, fumarate, and oxaloacetate. Amino acid catabolism occurs through a process called deamination, in which the amino group is removed, generating a carbon skeleton that can be further metabolized. The specific intermediate produced depends on the amino acid being degraded. For example, alanine can be converted into pyruvate, while leucine and lysine are converted into acetyl-CoA.
The carbon skeletons are then used as substrates for the citric acid cycle, generating energy in the form of ATP and reducing equivalents like NADH and FADH2. These reducing equivalents are then used in the electron transport chain to generate more ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. Thus, the conversion of amino acid carbon skeletons into intermediates of the aerobic respiration process plays a crucial role in energy production within cells.
Learn more about respiration at:
https://brainly.com/question/18024346
#SPJ11
Using the data point from 2.0 ppm (2.0, 0.323) and 6.0 ppm (6.0, 0.874), determine the slope of the line
Answers
Using the data point from 2.0 ppm (2.0, 0.323) and 6.0 ppm (6.0, 0.874), determine the slope of the line. The slope of the line is 0.13775.
To determine the slope of the line using the given data points, we can use the slope formula, which is:
Slope = (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1)
Here, we have the two data points (2.0, 0.323) and (6.0, 0.874). So, we can substitute the values in the formula as follows:
Slope = (0.874 - 0.323) / (6.0 - 2.0)
Slope = 0.551 / 4.0
Slope = 0.13775
Therefore, This means that for every increase of 1 ppm in x (chemical concentration), there is an average increase of 0.13775 in y (measurement value).
Slope is a key parameter in linear regression analysis, which helps to understand the relationship between two variables and make predictions based on the data.
To learn more about : slope
https://brainly.com/question/29725469
#SPJ11
what is the original source of the energy we get from our food
Answers
Answer:
The sun.
Explanation:
The energy content of all food molecules can be traced back to the Sun. It is the process of photosynthesis that locks the Sun's energy into simple carbohydrates like glucose.
Hope it helped! :)
The energy content of all food molecules can be traced back to the Sun. It is the process of photosynthesis that locks the Sun's energy into simple carbohydrates like glucose.
Each cytochrome has an iron-containing heme group that accepts electrons and then donates the electrons to a more electronegative substance.
Answers
Sure!
Cytochromes are proteins that are involved in electron transport chains. Each cytochrome has an iron-containing heme group that can accept electrons from a donor molecule. The electrons are then passed from cytochrome to cytochrome until they reach a final acceptor molecule, which is often oxygen. During this process, the electrons become more electronegative, which means they have a greater attraction to positively charged molecules. Eventually, the electrons are donated to the final acceptor molecule, where they are used to create energy for the cell. So, to summarize, cytochromes accept electrons from donor molecules and pass them on to more electronegative substances in electron transport chains.
To know more about cytochromes please click:-
https://brainly.com/question/31494181
#SPJ11
what uncertainties would be involved in estimating a fossil's absolute age from the amount of sediment desposited above the fossil
Answers
Estimating the absolute age of a fossil from the amount of sediment deposited. above it is a complex process that involves many uncertainties. While it can provide valuable information about the history of life on Earth, it is important to be aware of the limitations and potential sources of error when interpreting these estimates.
To begin with, the rate of sedimentation is not constant but varies depending on factors such as the flow rate of water or wind, the presence of vegetation, and the shape of the landscape. This means that the thickness of sediment above a fossil may not accurately reflect the time that has passed since the fossil was deposited.
Another uncertainty is the fact that the sediment itself may have been disturbed or eroded after it was initially deposited. This can happen due to natural processes such as erosion or landslides, or due to human activity such as mining or construction. Any disturbance of the sediment can cause it to shift, which can in turn cause the fossil to move and become displaced.
Different dating methods have different levels of precision and accuracy and may be subject to various sources of error. For example, radiometric dating relies on the decay of radioactive isotopes, but the accuracy of the dating can be affected by factors such as contamination or incomplete decay.
To know more about the Age of a Fossil visit:
https://brainly.com/question/17024164
#SPJ11
Maine is home to both the snow shoe hare and the cottontail rabbit. This graph shows how the coloration of the cottontail rabbits have changed between 1850 to 2000. Based on the data, what might you conclude? Select ALL that apply.
A. The white rabbits are most likely less camouflaged now than they once were
B. The environment has changed to favor the gray colored rabbits
C. The white rabbits all emigrated to a different area
D. White rabbits all died out
E. The gray rabbits has a greater reproductive rate
Answers
The following inferences can be made from the data:
A. The white rabbits are most likely less camouflaged now than they once were.
B. The environment has changed to favor the gray colored rabbits.
These inferences can be made since the graph demonstrates a dramatic shift over time from a preponderance of white to a preponderance of grey bunnies. This alteration in color shows that the environment has changed in a way that makes it more likely for grey rabbits to survive than for white rabbits.
Therefore, the correct options are A and B.
Learn more about inferences , here:
https://brainly.com/question/29774121
#SPJ1
Write a summary of your results for the sults for the selective and differential plating experiment. Specifically, what characteristics/traits did you observe for the straine observe for the strains? (which strains are gram positive, which are gram cative). The summary should be at least two paragraphs in length. Appearance of Streak Plate (mix culture of Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Serratia marcescens).
Answers
In the selective and differential plating experiment, we observed the growth of two strains of bacteria, Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Serratia marcescens, on different types of agar media. These media were designed to either promote the growth of specific strains or inhibit the growth of others based on their Gram-staining properties and other traits.
Characteristics of S. saprophyticus:
The first strain, Staphylococcus saprophyticus, exhibited Gram-positive characteristics. This means that it retains the crystal violet dye during the Gram staining process, resulting in a purple appearance under a microscope. The culture of Staphylococcus saprophyticus showed colonies with distinct morphologies such as round, opaque, and creamy.
Characteristics of S marcescens:
On the other hand, Serratia marcescens displayed Gram-negative properties, which means it does not retain the crystal violet dye and appears red after staining with safranin. The Serratia marcescens culture showed colonies with distinct features such as red or pink pigmentation and a moist, shiny appearance.
In conclusion, the selective and differential plating experiment allowed us to observe and differentiate between the two bacterial strains based on their Gram-staining properties and colony characteristics. Staphylococcus saprophyticus showed Gram-positive traits, while Serratia marcescens exhibited Gram-negative traits. Understanding these differences is crucial for determining the most effective treatment strategies and understanding bacterial resistance mechanisms.
To know more about gram staining, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14969595
#SPJ11
You have a petri dish full of skeletal muscles cells and you add calcium and ATP. Then, you remove all forms of ATP (no ADP or AMP either) from the muscle cells and petri dish). Which of the following is true? Myosin heads are powerstroking Myosin heads are locked in the reactivation stroke Myosin heads are locked in the cocked position of the powerstroke Myosin heads are in the relaxed position Myosin heads are frozen in the crossbridge detachment phase
Answers
Myosin heads are locked in the cocked position of the powerstroke is the correct statement.
1. Initially, you have skeletal muscle cells with calcium and ATP in the petri dish.
2. Calcium ions are necessary for the binding of myosin heads to actin filaments, which initiates the crossbridge cycle.
3. ATP provides energy for the myosin heads to undergo conformational changes during the crossbridge cycle.
4. When you remove all forms of ATP, ADP, and AMP from the muscle cells and the petri dish, the myosin heads cannot continue the crossbridge cycle.
5. Without ATP, the myosin heads are unable to transition to the relaxed state or detach from actin filaments. Thus, they become locked in the cocked position of the powerstroke, which is the high-energy state where myosin heads are primed to interact with actin but cannot complete the cycle.
More on myosin: https://brainly.com/question/13738745
#SPJ11
identify the correct statements about fossil apes in their habitats in the past.
Answers
The superfamily Hominoidea, which comprises living apes including humans, chimpanzees, gorillas, orangutans, and gibbons, as well as their extinct ancestors, includes fossil apes.
Why is a good fossil representation crucial to comprehending evolution?For tracing and comprehending the biological development of living and extinct lineages, fossils offer a crucial historical record. Geologic time and chronology are revealed by fossils.
What one of the following is untrue regarding fossil?Solution: Fossils are instances of preserved traces of living beings and are utilised for tracing the evolutionary link between species. It is untrue to say that it is impossible to establish the age of fossils.
To know more about arboreal visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/31355124
#SPJ1
Are there opinions about this document of aids
Answers
Question 1-11
A common oceanic condition that beach goers must be aware of are rip currents, which are powerful narrow channels of fast moving water along the shore. Which safety measure should a beach goer observe if they are at a beach with strong rip currents?
A) Leave the beach
B) Avoid going into the water
C) Avoid walking near the shoreline
D) Only swim in the water if lifeguard is present
Answers
c) Avoiding walking near the shoreline is not necessarily a safety measure for rip currents, as they are typically found in deeper water rather than close to shore. However, it is still important to be aware of your surroundings and any potential hazards.
b) Avoid going into the water. Rip currents can be extremely dangerous and can pull swimmers out to sea. It is important to stay aware of any warning signs or flags posted at the beach and to always follow the advice of lifeguards. If there are strong rip currents present, it is best to avoid going into the water altogether.
d) Only swimming in the water if a lifeguard is present is always a good safety measure, regardless of whether there are rip currents present. Lifeguards are trained to monitor the conditions and keep swimmers safe, so it is important to follow their instructions and advice.
In the case of strong rip currents it is safe to say that be best option if you are on the water is the do not fight against the current and try to float and swim parallel to the shore, if you are in the beach you must avoid going into the water (b). The other options can be also applyed if as alternativies, however the one that can safely secure that you can stay in the beach and don't be affected by the current is the alternative b.
The condition when cells go through mitosis repeatedly without entering interphase is known as.
Answers
Without interphase, the cell's genetic material would not be duplicated and the cell division would not result in an equal distribution of genetic material into the daughter cells
o describe the major anatomical features and defenses of the upper and lower respiratory tract
Answers
The respiratory tract is divided into two main parts: the upper and lower respiratory tract. The upper respiratory tract includes the nose, pharynx, and larynx, while the lower respiratory tract includes the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and lungs.
Major anatomical features of the upper respiratory tract:
Nose: It is the primary organ of the respiratory system and helps in breathing and smelling. Pharynx: It is a muscular tube that connects the nose and mouth to the larynx and esophagus. Larynx: It is commonly known as the voice box and is located at the top of the trachea.Major anatomical features of the lower respiratory tract:
Trachea: It is a tube-like structure that connects the larynx to the bronchi. Bronchi: They are two main branches of the trachea that lead to the lungs. Lungs: They are the main organs of respiration and are located in the chest cavity.Learn more about the respiratory system: https://brainly.com/question/18800405
#SPJ11
The respiratory tract is divided into two main parts: the upper and lower respiratory tract. The upper respiratory tract includes the nose, pharynx, and larynx, while the lower respiratory tract includes the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and lungs.
Major anatomical features of the upper respiratory tract:
Nose: It is the primary organ of the respiratory system and helps in breathing and smelling. Pharynx: It is a muscular tube that connects the nose and mouth to the larynx and esophagus. Larynx: It is commonly known as the voice box and is located at the top of the trachea.Major anatomical features of the lower respiratory tract:
Trachea: It is a tube-like structure that connects the larynx to the bronchi. Bronchi: They are two main branches of the trachea that lead to the lungs. Lungs: They are the main organs of respiration and are located in the chest cavity.Learn more about the respiratory system: https://brainly.com/question/18800405
#SPJ11
Oxygen consumption by suspended plant cells Plant cells are cultured in a bioreactor using sucrose(C12H220) as the carbon source and ammonia (NH3) as the nitrogen source. The vessel is sparged with air. Biomass is the major product formed; however, because the cells are subject to lysis, significant levels of excreted by-product with the same molecular composition as the biomass are also produced. Elemental analysis of the plant cells gives a molecular formula of CHi63No.13 with negligible ash. Yield measurements show that 0.32 g of intact cells is produced per g of sugar consumed, while 0.2 g of by-product is formed per g of intact biomass. If 10 kg sugar is consumed per hour, at what rate must oxygen be provided to the reactor in units of gmol min ?
Answers
Oxygen must be provided to the reactor at a rate of 93.28 gmol/min.
First, we need to calculate the amount of biomass and by-product produced per hour:
Intact cells: 0.32 g/g x 10,000 g = 3,200 g/hour
By-product: 0.2 g/g x 3,200 g = 640 g/hour
Next, we need to calculate the number of moles of sucrose consumed per hour:
10,000 g / 342.3 g/mol = 29.21 mol/hour
From the molecular formula of the biomass, we can calculate its molecular weight:
MW(CHi63No.13) = 12(63) + 1(13) + 14(1) = 815 g/mol
Using the stoichiometry of respiration, we know that 6 moles of O2 are required to oxidize 1 mole of sucrose to [tex]$\text{CO}_2$[/tex] and [tex]: $\text{H}_2\text{O}$[/tex]. Therefore, the number of moles of O2 required per hour is:
6 mol O2 / 1 mol sucrose x 29.21 mol sucrose/hour = 175.26 mol O2/hour
Finally, we can convert this to units of gmol/min:
175.26 mol O2/hour x 1 hour/60 min x 32 g/mol = 93.28 gmol/min
Therefore, oxygen must be provided to the reactor at a rate of 93.28 gmol/min.
Learn more about Oxygen
https://brainly.com/question/2272415
#SPJ4
how does formulation and procedure for plant cell lysis differ when extracting total rna from woody tissues versus small seedlings
Answers
The procedure for plant cell lysis and RNA extraction can differ depending on the type of tissue being used.
Woody tissues are generally tougher and have a higher content of lignin and other secondary metabolites, making the RNA extraction process more challenging compared to small seedlings.
To extract total RNA from woody tissues, it is necessary to first disrupt the tough cell walls and extract RNA from within the cells.
This can be achieved using mechanical methods, such as grinding the tissue in liquid nitrogen or using a bead mill, or through chemical methods, such as using a high concentration of chaotropic salts or using phenol-chloroform extraction.
In contrast, small seedlings have relatively softer tissues, and so the cell lysis process is less challenging. In this case, cell disruption can be achieved by simply grinding the tissue with a mortar and pestle or using a homogenizer.
learn more about RNA here:
https://brainly.com/question/13631966
#SPJ4
what function does the nutrient agar serve in the pglo experiment?
Answers
The nutrient agar in the pGLO experiment serves as a growth medium for bacterial cells.
In the pGLO experiment, nutrient agar serves as a growth medium that provides essential nutrients, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and vitamins, for bacterial growth. It contains all the necessary nutrients for the bacteria to grow and reproduce, including sugars, amino acids, and vitamins.
The use of nutrient agar allows for the successful transformation and expression of the pGLO plasmid, which carries the gene for green fluorescent protein (GFP), in the bacteria. By using nutrient agar, researchers can observe and analyze the growth and characteristics of the transformed bacteria.
Learn more about pGLO experiment here: https://brainly.com/question/15063019
#SPJ11
The nutrient agar in the pGLO experiment serves as a growth medium for bacterial cells.
In the pGLO experiment, nutrient agar serves as a growth medium that provides essential nutrients, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and vitamins, for bacterial growth. It contains all the necessary nutrients for the bacteria to grow and reproduce, including sugars, amino acids, and vitamins.
The use of nutrient agar allows for the successful transformation and expression of the pGLO plasmid, which carries the gene for green fluorescent protein (GFP), in the bacteria. By using nutrient agar, researchers can observe and analyze the growth and characteristics of the transformed bacteria.
Learn more about pGLO experiment here: https://brainly.com/question/15063019
#SPJ11
how many differnt proteins coukld you make given unlimited number is each of 20 amino acids.
Answers
The number of different proteins you could make with an unlimited number of each of the 20 amino acids depends on the length of the protein you are trying to create.
1. There are 20 different amino acids available.
2. For each position in the protein, you can choose one of these 20 amino acids.
3. The number of possible proteins you can create depends on the length of the protein (n).
To calculate the number of different proteins you can make, you simply multiply the number of options (20) by itself for each position in the protein. This can be written as:
Number of possible proteins = 20^n
Where n is the length of the protein.
So, if you want to create a protein that is only 1 amino acid long, you would have 20 different options (20^1 = 20). However, if you want to create a protein that is 2 amino acids long, you would have 400 different options (20^2 = 400), and so on.
In summary, the number of different proteins you could make with an unlimited number of each of the 20 amino acids depends on the length (n) of the protein, and it can be calculated using the formula:
Number of possible proteins = 20^n
For more about proteins:
https://brainly.com/question/30258984
#SPJ11