This large, fan-shaped muscle of the upper chest is the prime mover of arm flexion:

A)pectoralis major
B)external oblique
C)deltoid
D)serratus anterior

Answers

Answer 1

A) Pectoralis major is large, fan-shaped muscle of the upper chest is the prime mover of arm flexion.

The pectoralis major is that the superior most and largest muscle of the anterior chest wall. it's a thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies beneath the breast tissue and forms the anterior wall of the axillary fossa.

It is important to focus on each heads of the pec major if you wish a balanced overall look. Clavicular Head   is additional unremarkably referred to as the upper chest; it begins at the bone, as you will have guessed. This upper chest space makes up roughly 20-30 p.c of the entire mass of the pectoral muscle.

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Related Questions

Which of the following processes occurs immediately following ovulation?

A. Certain female hormone levels decrease significantly in quantity.
B. The endometrium sheds its lining and is expelled from the vagina.
C. The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation.
D. Numerous follicles mature and release eggs into the fallopian tubes.

Answers

C. The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation is the processes which occurs immediately following ovulation.

The uterus is a hollow muscular organ settled within the feminine pelvis between the bladder and body part. The ovaries turn out the eggs that travel through the fallopian tubes. Once the egg has left the ovary it is fertilised and implant itself within the lining of the womb.

Just before ovulation, the mucosa begins to thicken and to expand in response to the discharge of steroid from the ovaries. because the embryo moves through the fallopian tubes, the mucosa proliferates, changes in form, becomes receptive to implantation, and produces a hospitable setting for the embryo.

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Medical Terminology, Ch 12: Reproductive System

Answers

The tissues, glands, and organs involved in reproduction make up the reproductive system (medical terminology).

The ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, and vagina are all parts of the female reproductive system. Men’s testicles, prostate, and others are all included.

The reproductive system of an organism, often known as the genital system, is the biological system made up of all the anatomical organs involved in sexual reproduction. Numerous inanimate components are essential reproductive system add-ons, including fluids, hormones, and pheromones.

The essential components of human reproduction are the following: (1) liberation of an ovum, or egg, at a specific time in the reproductive cycle; (2) internal fertilization of the ovum by spermatozoa, or sperm cells; (3) transportation of the fertilized ovum to the uterus, or womb; (4) implantation of the blastocyst, the early embryo developed from the fertilized ovum, in the wall of the uterus; (5) development of a placenta and care for the fetus throughout the entire gestation period, (6) birth of the kid and ejection of the placenta, (7) nursing and caring for the child, with an ultimate return of the maternal organs to nearly their original state.

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because of the client's history of knee pain and current report of low back pain which nursing action is most useful in developing an initial plan of care of the client

Answers

Conduct a functional analysis. (A functional evaluation gives details regarding the client's capacity to function and covers topics like mobility and self-care techniques.)

What does nursing research entail?

Similar to biology, nursing is a fundamental science. While nursing science studies the concepts and practices of nursing, biology is the study of life. You might be wondering what distinguishes nursing from nursing science. The scientific foundation for professional nursing practice is provided by nursing science.

Could a nurse perform surgery?

Surgical operations cannot be carried out independently by nurses. Before, during, and following surgical operations, nurses can perform a wide variety of tasks. To land the job you want most, think about getting more education or training.

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Respect for allopathic medicine had grown by the year 1900 because
Americans increasingly defined health care as complex matter requiring expert intervention.
Americans increasingly believed in the benefits of science.
most were white men of high status.
they had eliminated most of their competitors.
**All of these are correct.**

Answers

The correct option  (c) All of these are correct.

Americans increasingly believed in the benefits of science Americans increasingly defined health care as complex matter requiring expert intervention.

Allopathic medicine, sometimes known as allopathy, is a dated phrase used to describe modern, science-based medicine. The phrase is used in different ways depending on the locale.

Especially in the area of medical education, the word is used in the United States to contrast with osteopathic medicine. In India, the word is used, particularly when comparing treatments and medications, to separate modern medicine from Ayurveda, homeopathy, and other comparable alternative/traditional medicine.

By Alexander Beideman, "Homeopathy Looks at the Horrors of Allopathy" (1857)

The words were first used in 1810 by Samuel Hahnemann, the creator of homeopathy.

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Medical Terminology Flashcards (Penta- to Tax/o-)

Answers

Medical Terminology Flashcards stands for Penta- = Five and Tax/o- = arrange, to order, to organize, or locate. The practise of medicine involves the use of medical jargon.

Medical terminology accurately describes the human body, including all of its elements, functions, disorders that affect it, and medicines used to treat these conditions. The morphology of medical terminology is somewhat predictable; the same prefixes and suffixes are applied to provide meaning to various roots. The root of a word typically refers to an object, state, or body component. For instance, the prefix "hyper-" in the disease known as hypertension indicates "high" or "over," and the word "tension base "'s meaning signifies pressure, so the term "hypertension" refers to exceptionally high blood pressure. The roots, prefixes, and suffixes are frequently very different from their English-language equivalents and are typically of Latin or Greek origin.

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Inflamed tissue experiences an increase in vascularity, slowing the onset of anesthetic action and decreasing the duration of anesthetic action; however, in healthy tissues the onset of action and the duration of action are more predictable.T/F

Answers

While, in healthy tissues, the onset of action and the duration are more consistent. Inflamed tissue experiences an increase in vascularity, which slows the onset of anaesthetic action and decreases the duration of anaesthetic action.

Insulin is not always required for those with Type 2 diabetes. However, it is still a viable (and occasionally required) therapy option. Their bodies might not produce enough insulin, and they might not react to insulin normally (also called insulin resistance). Long-acting insulin is typically used to treat Type 2 diabetes at first (if they need insulin). Later, you might add insulin with a fast onset of action.

Consequently, we can state that the statement is true.

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select the spinal cord tract that transmits impulses concerned with pain and temperature to opposite side of brain for interpretation by somatosensory cortex.

Answers

Spinothalamus that is located laterally and sends pain and temperature-related impulses to the brain's opposing side for the somatosensory cortex to process.

Why do somatosensory systems exist?

The somatosensory system, which is a component of the sensory system, is responsible for the conscious awareness of touch, pressure, pain, temperature, position, movement, and vibration, all of which originate from the muscles, joints, skin, and fascia.

What exactly do somatosensory experiences entail?

As well as being referred to as the somatic senses, touch, or tactile perception, the somatosensory system. The somatosensory system is a network of neurons in the human anatomy that aids in object recognition, texture discrimination, sensory-motor feedback generation, and social cue exchange.

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1. A client with multiple sclerosis is prescribed Dantrolene (Dantrum 0.1 grams PO bid for spasticity Danciones avable in 100 mg capsules. How many capsule should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only)

Answers

1 to 2 capsule should be administered by nurse.

What is Multiple sclereosis ?

It is possible for multiple sclerosis (MS) to disable the brain and spinal cord (central nervous system).

Myelin, the protective sheath that protects nerve fibers, is attacked by the immune system in MS, which impairs brain-to-body communication. The condition may eventually result in nerve fiber degeneration or irreversible injury.

The location and degree of nerve fiber damage in the central nervous system affects the signs and symptoms of MS, which vary greatly from patient to patient. Some MS sufferers may become completely or partially unable to walk on their own.

Therefore, 1 to 2 capsule should be administered by nurse.

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Which of the following questions not needs to be addressed when appraising the credibility of an evidence based clinical guideline?

Answers

It is important to concentrate on specific criteria when assessing the reliability of various sources, such as scholarly articles and websites.

These standards include objectivity, authority, currency, accuracy, and relevance. As a result, it's critical to confirm that the source was authored by an authority on the subject and was released within the last five years. The peer-review process is crucial for scholarly works, and the information offered in the paper should be correct. Only factual, reliable information about the subject should be included in content, and it must be relevant. Because a document needs to be free of bias, objectivity should be taken into consideration. These standards apply to websites and academic works, although scholarly writing also pays close attention to

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A patients large bowel obstruction has failed to resolve spontaneously and the patients worsening condition has warranted admission to the medical unit. Which of the following aspects of nursing care is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Administering bowel stimulants as ordered
B) Administering bulkforming laxatives as ordered
C) Performing deep palpation as ordered to promote peristalsis
D) Preparing the patient for surgical bowel resection

Answers

The nursing intervention that would be most appropriate for this patient would be to administer bulkforming laxatives as directed.

If diverticulitis is thought to be the cause, which of the following diagnostics should be used?

The test of preference to confirm a diverticulitis suspicion is a CT scan with intravenous and oral contrast.

What contributes to small bowel blockage the most frequently?

Typically, cancer, hernias, or scar tissue are to blame for small bowel blockages. Most blockages in the United States are brought on by earlier operations. After handling during a surgery, the colon frequently develops bands of scar tissue (referred to as adhesions).

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each of the following statements concerning the gray matter of the spinal cord is true, except one. identify the exception.

Answers

It is primarily involved in relaying information to the brain. So, the correct option is (A).

What is Gray Matter?

Gray matter forms the outermost layer of the brain where white matter and gray matter are similar as they are both essential sections of the brain as well as the spinal cord. Gray matter gets its gray tone from a high concentration of neuronal cell bodies.

It is present as a substance external to the spinal cord which lacks sensory motor and has the presence of unmyelinated axons.

Gray matter serves to process information in the brain, while structures within gray matter process signals originating in sensory organs or other areas of gray matter where the tissue conducts sensory (motor) stimuli to the central nervous system.

Thus, it is primarily involved in relaying information to the brain. So, the correct option is (A).

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is

Each of the following statements concerning the gray matter of the spinal cord is true, except one. Identify the exception.

A. It is primarily involved in relaying information to the brain

B. It is present as outer matter for spinal cord

C. It lacks sensory motor

D. It has presence of unmyelinated axon

Balance of nature fruits and veggies - whole food supplement with superfood fruits and vegetables for women, men, and kids - 90 fruit capsules, 90 veggie capsules

Answers

Food supplements are taken to supplement the nutrients obtained when food is eaten. An example of a food supplement is Balance of nature fruits and veggies.

What are food supplements?

Food supplements, usually referred to as dietary or nutritional supplements are substances that are taken into the body that are intended to supply nutrients that may not be consumed in appropriate amounts.

Some examples of food supplements are vitamins, minerals, amino acids, fatty acids, and other compounds that are available as pills, tablets, capsules, liquids, etc

There are numerous different dosages and mix options for supplements. One example of food supplements is the Balance of nature fruits and veggies. The Balance of nature fruits and veggies is a whole food supplement with superfood fruits and vegetables for women, men, and kids. It contains 90 fruit capsules and 90 veggie capsules.

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Complete question:

What is the role of Balance of nature fruits and veggies - whole food supplement with superfood fruits and vegetables for women, men, and kids - 90 fruit capsules, 90 veggie capsules?

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:
-contact medical control.
-assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.
-perform CPR for 30 seconds.
-dry the chest if it is wet.

Answers

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should perform CPR for 30 seconds.

An automated external defibrillator (AED) could be a medical device designed to research the center rhythm and deliver an electrical shock to victims of fibrillation to revive the center rhythm to traditional. fibrillation is that the uncoordinated cardiac rhythm most frequently to blame for sudden cardiac arrest.

An EMT, additionally referred to as an EMT-Basic, cares for patients at the scene of an occurrence and whereas taking patients by machine to a hospital. associate degree EMT has the abilities to assess a patient's condition and to manage metabolism, cardiac, and trauma emergencies.

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Limiting the time a person spends being ill or infirm is referred to as _____.
A. compression of morbidity
B. progeria
C. dependency ratio
D. senescence

Answers

Answer:

A. compression of morbidity

Explanation:

Limiting the time a person spends being ill or infirm is referred to as compression of morbidity.

________is a condition characterized by low blood potassium concentration.

Answers

Low blood potassium levels are a defining feature of hypokalemia.

A metabolic imbalance known as hypokalemia is characterized by dangerously low potassium levels in the blood. It is either a sign of another illness or condition, a side effect of diuretic medication, or both. The body needs potassium to function properly and for the contraction of muscles, particularly the heart muscle (enzymes). Potassium, which is largely present in skeletal muscle and bone, works with salt to support the regular movement of bodily fluids across cells in the body. Through the excretion of urine, the kidneys control the body’s natural potassium levels. The body can use the potassium in the diet in appropriate amounts when the kidneys are healthy, and any extra potassium is often eliminated through perspiration and urine. Aldosterone and other bodily substances and hormones control how much potassium is in the body. By enhancing cell absorption of potassium, the hormone insulin, which is ordinarily activated by food, prevents transient hypokalemia brought on by a meal. When hypokalemia happens, there is an imbalance brought on by a breakdown in this regular process or by a sudden loss of urine or sweat without adequate potassium replacement.

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surveillance of covid-19 vaccine safety among elderly persons aged 65 years and older

Answers

When used in key populations like the elderly, who can benefit considerably from vaccination, monitoring safety outcomes after COVID-19 vaccination is essential for understanding vaccine safety.

We present fresh data from a nationally representative early warning system that could add to the body of safety knowledge and help the public, government organisations, healthcare professionals, interested parties, and the general public make decisions about vaccination safety.

Following BNT162b2 vaccination, four outcomes

pulmonary embolism (PE; risk ratio [RR] = 1.54), acute myocardial infarction (AMI; risk ratio [RR] = 1.42), disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC; risk ratio [RR] = 1.91), and immune thrombocytopenia (ITP; risk ratio [RR] = 1.44]—met the threshold for a statistical signal. Following more analysis, only

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Lead absorption is decreased by the presence of ________ in the body.
a) calcium and vitamin D
b) calcium and iron
c) iron and selenium
d) selenium and vitamin C

Answers

I think it’s b) calcium and iron


30 . According to the Neonatal Resuscitation Program 8th EditionIdeally, how quickly should the intubation procedure be completed?A. 30 secondsB. 40 secondsC. 60 secondsD. 90 seconds

Answers

According to the 8th Edition of the Neonatal Resuscitation Program, The ideal time for the intubation technique is 30 seconds.

According to the Neonatal Resuscitation Program 8th Edition, intubation should be finished in less than 30 seconds. This is due to the fact that intubation is a crucial stage in infant resuscitation, and a delay of more than 30 seconds may lower the likelihood of a good result. The infant’s breathing and oxygenation condition may also be impacted by a delay in intubation. It is crucial that the intubation procedure be finished as soon as possible.

The Neonatal Resuscitation Program (NRP) training teaches healthcare professionals how to care for babies at the time of delivery using an evidence-based strategy, and it allows efficient team-based treatment.

The newborn resuscitation ideas and fundamental skills are introduced in the NRP Provider Course. It is intended for healthcare professionals who are directly involved in newborn resuscitation in any capacity, including doctors, nurses, advanced practice nurses, nurse midwives, licensed midwives, respiratory care practitioners, and other medical specialists.

Option A is the proper response, so.

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Place the events of a contraction cycle in the order in which they occur: 1. ATP hydrolysis 2. detachment of myosin head from actin, binding of ATP 3. power stroke driving sarcomere contraction, release of ADP 4. cross-bridge formation between myosin heads and actin active site Answers
O 1, 4, 3, 2 O 1, 4, 2, 3 O 1. 3, 4, 2 O 1, 3, 2, 4 O 1, 2, 3, 4

Answers

1, 4, 3, 2 is  the correct order in which  the events of a contraction cycle occur with myosin..

The myosin heads bind ATP at what point in the contraction cycle?The myosin is in its low-energy position at the conclusion of the power stroke. The cross-bridge produced remains in place even after the power stroke, when ADP is released. Then, myosin is bound by ATP.

When muscles contract, what happens?When the thick myosin and thin actin filaments glide past one another, muscle contraction results. The broad consensus is that cross-bridges that protrude from myosin filaments and engage in periodic interactions with actin filaments when ATP is hydrolyzed are responsible for driving this process.

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In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa:

A. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding.
B. may present without significant abdominal pain.
C. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma.
D. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain.

Answers

In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa: is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma. Option C

What is meant by  placenta previa?

When the placenta totally or partially blocks the entrance of the uterus during pregnancy (cervix). During pregnancy, an organ called the placenta grows inside the uterus. It functions to give the newborn nutrition and oxygen as well as to remove waste.

The following are some potential causes and placenta previa risk factors: a low rate of fertilized eggs implanting. uterine lining abnormalities, such as fibroids. Tissue scarring in the uterus (endometrium)

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The dental assistant is taking the vital signs of a 62-year-old woman who has a severe toothache. Her temperature using the digital thermometer is 101° F. Her blood pressure is 100 mm Hg systolic over 70 mm Hg diastolic. Her pulse reading is 75 beats per minute. Which vital signs taken by the dental assistant are not within the normal range? What is the likely cause of the abnormal reading? What characteristic of a digital thermometer should the assistant keep in mind when using it? How should the dental assistant respond to this information about the patient’s vital signs?

205 words

Answers

The vital signs taken by the dental assistant that will not be in the normal range will be the temperature. The normal temperature is going to be between the range of 97-99 F in adults.

What is the likely cause of the abnormal reading?

The reason why an elevated temperature may be displayed is because you have a fever. This may be due to severe toothache that will be accompanied by other symptoms such as headaches, severe pain in the affected area and inflammation of the gums around the affected tooth.

The assistant must take into account when using the digital thermometer is that at least 40 seconds must be left to take the temperature correctly. This does not happen with the mercury thermometer.

The dental assistant should respond to this information on the patient's vital signs by notifying the attending physician of the patient's temperature in order to take this symptom into account for the treatment to be carried out for severe toothache.

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caus/o (combining form)

Answers

caus/o is the Medical terminology which stands for combining form. Medical terminology gives a detailed description of the human body, including all of its parts, functions, diseases that impact it, and cures for certain ailments.

The practice of medicine involves the use of medical jargon. The morphology of medical terminology is somewhat predictable; the same prefixes and suffixes are applied to provide meaning to various roots. The root of a word typically refers to an object, state, or body component. For instance, the prefix "hyper-" in the disease known as hypertension indicates "high" or "over," and the word "tension base "'s meaning signifies pressure, so the term "hypertension" refers to exceptionally high blood pressure. The roots, prefixes, and suffixes are frequently very different from their English-language equivalents and are typically of Latin or Greek origin.

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after placing a client in full leather restraints, how often should the nurse check the client's circulation?

Answers

A client in restraint equipment must be checked for circulatory difficulties every 15 minutes.

In order to keep a patient still during surgery or while being carried on a stretcher, restraints may be utilized. Additionally, restraints can be employed to restrict or stop dangerous conduct. Restraints are sometimes required for hospital patients who are disoriented to prevent them from: Scratching their skin.

Physical, chemical, and environmental limitations are the three different categories.

Physical constraints known as "medical restraints" are used to patients during specific medical operations to keep them under control while causing them (said) little discomfort or agony and to stop them from hurting others or themselves.

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treatment for cancer in which parts of the body that have cancerous tumors are exposed to high-energy radiation to disrupt cell division of the cancer cells.

Answers

Many different forms of cancer are treated with external beam radiation treatment. Cancers of the head and neck, breast, cervix, prostate, and eye are among those most often treated with brachytherapy.

Where does cancer begin?

Uncontrolled cell division and tissue invasion lead to the condition known as cancer. DNA modifications are the root of cancer. The majority of DNA modifications that cause cancer take place in so-called genes. These alterations are also known as genetic modifications.

Could stress lead to cancer?

Particularly in cases of ovarian, breast, and colorectal cancer, stress might hasten the body's ability to fight against cancer. Stress causes the body to produce neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, which promote cancer cells.

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which drug therapy class is considered the treatment of choice for people who have gestational diabetes mellitus

Answers

Insulin

Explanation: Insulin administration is the first choice for gestational diabetes mellitus.

an adolescent athlete has injured his ankle playing basketball. he has rt ankle pain, ecchymosis, significant edema,

Answers

b. grade I sprain. Grade 1: Mild discomfort, edoema, and stiffness with minor ligament stretching or minor tears. Usually, walking is possible with little to no pain because the ankle feels stable.

Grade 2: A more serious sprain but an incomplete tear with mild discomfort, edoema, and bruising.

Light sprains in the grade 1 range from 2-3 weeks before they permit return to sport.

In the last phases of therapy, it's normal for some residual swelling to still exist within the ankle joint. You may be able to resume your normal activities if you have mild swelling that is not painful or that interferes with your ability to perform. However, in a perfect world, there should be no swelling following exercise because this indicates that the body is mending properly. Once more, you must contact a physician or physical therapist.

The complete question is:

an adolescent athlete has injured his ankle playing basketball. he has rt ankle pain, ecchymosis, significant edema, and he is unable to bear wt at the time of the clinical exam. which dx is least likely?

a. an avulsion fx

b. grade I sprain

c. grande II sprain

d. grade III sprain

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.Patient suffering from cirrhosis of the liver presents with a history of coffee ground emesis. The surgeon diagnoses the patient with esophageal varices. Two days later, in the hospital Gl lab, the surgeon ligates the varices with bands via an UGl endoscopy. What ept and ICD - 10 -CM codes are reported?

Answers

                                      look at the image.

           

Anatomy Medical Terminology Medical Prefixes, Roots, and Suffixes audi(o) - cervic(o)

Answers

Audi(o) means hearing and cervic(o) means neck, and cervix.

Examples of audi(o) include audiograms, auditory tests, and audiology, while examples of cervic(o) include cervical cancer, cervicitis, and cervicectomy.

A prefix is found at the start of a medical term. The prefix changes how the medical phrase is understood. Prefixes must be spelled and spoken appropriately.

Many of the prefixes used in medical terminology are also used in English. The following is a helpful memorizing technique:

Review the most typical prefixes first.Take a look at some typical English words that share the same prefixes.Compare them to instances of their application in medical terminology.

Word components known as suffixes are found at the end of words. Medical terminology can have its meanings changed by suffixes. Correct suffix spelling and pronunciation are crucial.

Medical terminology suffixes are typical of English language suffixes. Suffixes are not typically stated in full in a word's definition. It is typical for workplace definitions of medical terms to omit explicit mention of suffixes. The suffix is always written explicitly while transcribing or reading medical papers, though. Learning the suffixes makes it easier to spell and pronounce medical terminology correctly.

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which of the following injury mechanisms and clinical findings would most likely warrant transport to a facility that provides the highest level of trauma care?

Answers

Motorcycle crash injury mechanisms and clinical findings would most likely warrant transport to a facility that provides the highest level of trauma care.

Any physiological harm to living tissue brought on by a sudden physical force is referred to as an injury. Burns, toxic exposure, asphyxiation, overexertion, blunt trauma, piercing trauma, burning, asphyxiation, or accidents can all result in injuries. Every injury has its own unique set of signs and symptoms, and injuries can occur to any portion of the body.

Serious injuries are normally treated by a medical practitioner, and the type of care needed varies widely depending on the damage. The most frequent cause of unintended human injury and injury-related death is traffic accidents. Chronic diseases, psychological stress, infections, and medical treatments are distinct from injuries even if any of these can be made worse by a wound.

The complete question is:

which of the following injury mechanisms and clinical findings would most likely warrant transport to a facility that provides the highest level of trauma care?

a) Motorcycle crash

b) pelvic instability

c) systolic BP of 80 mm Hg

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The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ___________.
A. Too slow
B. Normal
C. Too fast
D. Too shallow

Answers

B. Normal

Explanation: The newborn’s normal respiratory rate is 30 to 60 breaths per minute.

Greater than 60 breaths per minute would be tachypnea.

Hope it helps.
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