who smart enough to answer this?

Answer:

4 lawns

Step-by-step explanation:

$145=$65+N*$20

where N= no. of lawns he needs to now

$80=$20N

N=4

Answer:

yea same

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0 | 20

10 | 30

12 | 32

Y | Y+20

40 | 60

R-20 | R

Answer:

[tex] \large{ \tt{♕ \: EXPLANATION }}: [/tex]

[tex] \boxed{ \large{ \tt{✺ \: PERIMETER \: OF \: SQUARE \: ( \: P \: )= 4l}}}[/tex]

- Plug the value of length ( L ) of square :

[tex] \large{ \tt{↬P = 4(4x - 8)}}[/tex]

- Distribute 4 through the parantheses :

[tex] \large{ \tt{↬P = 4 \times 4x - 4 \times 8}}[/tex]

[tex] \large{ \boxed{ \tt{↬P = 16x - 32 \: units}}}[/tex]

✺ Hardwork will never disappoint you! ♪

♡ Hope I helped! ツ

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Answer:

9.97 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

r = 24.41cm

Step-by-step explanation:

If you're only trying to find the radius, use the equation:

[tex]Area = \pi r^2[/tex]

When rearranged to make r the subject:

[tex]r = \sqrt\frac{Area}{\pi }[/tex]

When the variables are added:

[tex]r = \sqrt\frac{1872}{\pi }[/tex]

[tex]r = 24.41[/tex]

Answer:

3=0.5p

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost to get a small sundae with P toppings added represented  as 3 + 0.5p.

The unitary method is a method for solving a problem by the first value of a single unit and then finding the value by multiplying the single value.

Let's consider the toppings added to the chocolate sundae represented by p.

We will use the unitary method,

The cost of topping added to one chocolate = $0.50

The cost of topping added to p chocolate = $0.5p

So, the cost to get a small sundae with P toppings added is;

3 + 0.5p

Therefore, the cost to get a small sundae with P toppings added represented  as 3 + 0.5p

Learn more about the unitary method;

https://brainly.com/question/23423168

#SPJ5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The process here is to find out how far the tire travels in one rotation, then multiply that by 100. That means we need to find the circumference of the tire since the circumference tells us how far around the outside of the tire it is in inches.

C = πd where d is the diameter of the tire.

C = 3.1415(26) so

C = 81.679 inches. Multiply that by 100 to get

8167.9 inches, which in miles is a little over 1.5 miles

Answer:

(x-4)^2 + (y+1)^2 = 81

Step-by-step explanation:

you clearly have internet access and could have very quickly searched for the equation of a circle.

(x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r^2

with (h,k) being the center.

=> (x-4)^2 + (y+1)^2 = 81

Answer:

Probability by definition is the extent to which an event is likely to occur, measured by the ratio of the favourable cases to the whole number of cases possible.

Since number of elements in the set of favourable cases is less than or equal to the number of elements in the set of whole number of cases, their ratio would always end up being 1 or less than one.

Probability equals one when favourable number of cases are same as that of the whole number of cases and probability equals zero when there is no favourable case

Answer

4.84%

Step-by-step explanation:

trust me

[tex]\huge{ \mathcal{  \underline{ Answer} \:  \:  ✓ }}[/tex]

First equation :

Second equation :

Now, the equations are in the form of

where,

[tex] \dfrac{a_1}{a_2} = \dfrac{b_1}{b_2} \neq \dfrac{c_1}{c_2} [/tex]

therefore the equations would have no solution .

_____________________________

[tex]\mathrm{ \#TeeNForeveR}[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We can easily find the determinant of a matrix of which will be the cofactor of 2. Multiplying the diagonal elements of the matrix, we get. Now subtract the value of the second diagonal from the first, i.e, 48 – 3 = 45. Check the sign that is assigned to the number

Answer:

Negative.

Step-by-step explanation:

You can see the line is declining. The y value is decreasing.

Always read the line from left to right, you’ll easily see it’s a negative slope.

Answer:

It's negative

Step-by-step explanation:

It's going from top to bottom so it's gotta be negative

Answer: Check out the diagram below

[tex]1.5 \le x \le 5.5[/tex]

The lengths can be between   4   and   12   units

=======================================================

Explanation:

Let's find an expression that represents the area.

The length is 2x+1 and the width is 3. Multiply those two and we get

3(2x+1) = 6x+3

The area is 6x+3 square units.

In other words, A = 6x+3 represents the area.

------------------

We're then told that [tex]12 \le A \le 36[/tex] saying that the area is between 12 and 36 square units (including both endpoints).

We'll replace the A with 6x+3 and solve for x like so:

[tex]12 \le A \le 36\\\\12 \le 6x+3 \le 36\\\\12-3 \le 6x+3-3 \le 36-3 \ \text{ .... see note1}\\\\9 \le 6x \le 33\\\\\frac{9}{6} \le \frac{6x}{6} \le \frac{33}{6} \ \text{ .... see note2}\\\\\frac{3}{2} \le x \le \frac{11}{2}\\\\1.5 \le x \le 5.5\\\\[/tex]

note1: I subtracted 3 from all sides to undo the "plus 3"

note2: I divided all sides by 6 to undo the multiplication

------------------

We just found that [tex]1.5 \le x \le 5.5\\\\[/tex] so it says that x is between 1.5 and 5.5 including both endpoints.

Plug in the smallest possible x value to find the smallest possible length

length = 2x+1

L = 2(1.5)+1

L = 3+1

L = 4

The smallest possible length is 4 units. Multiply this with the height 3 and we get L*W = 4*3 = 12 which is the smallest possible area.

------------------

Now use x = 5.5 to find the largest value of L possible

L = 2x+1

L = 2(5.5)+1

L = 11+1

L = 12

Then note how L*W = 12*3 = 36 is the max area possible, which matches with that your teacher wrote. So this confirms we have the correct value.

If you're not sure which values go where, check out the diagram below.

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

The water tank in the school hold 20 liters of water

One day it was 34 liters full

14 liters of water was used up

Therefore the quantity of water left can be calculated as follows

= 34-14

= 20

Hence 20 liters of water remains in the tank

Answer:

will for here to win a prize from a toss n turn or another game would be impossible first of all she has to get  it a heads if she gets it a head that's good now the next thing she has to land it on a even number if she passes that she gets a prize but it is impossible for here to get a prize in a 1 out of 5 flip chances

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i need points sorry

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the Midian is 9

mode is 3

mean is 6

it ranges from 3 to 12

Answer:

49 square miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Sorry on the last question :(

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Have a good day :)

Answer:

49 square miles

Step-by-step explanation:

7 × 5 = 35

9 - 5=4

4 × 8 = 32

32 ÷ 2 = 16

35 + 16 = 49

Answer:

-3 1/4 + 4 3/4= 1 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

420 cm cubed

Step-by-step explanation:

not entirely sure how to do this, but saw a similar post. hope this helps:

https://brainly.com/question/22267794

(or u can copy + paste ur question it'll show up either way)

Answer:

26 papers

Step-by-step explanation:

Well this is pretty straight forward

if he can grade 6 papers an hour

we just multiply 6 by 7 to get how many papers he graded in 7 hours

6*7= 42

now we subtract 42 from 68 to get how many papers are left to be graded

68-42=26

26 papers are left

Answer:

nah

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes or No: Yes

Explanation: It is a function because each input is paired with only one output, as shown in the table.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

31,38,45

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

31, 38, & 45

Step-by-step explanation:

The sequence 10, 17, 24 increases by 7 each term.

10 + 7 = 17

17 + 7 = 24

24 + 7 = 31

31 + 7 = 38

38 + 7 = 45

Answer:

the probably your name would be called is 1 out of 25 because there is only one of your name. if there were 5 of your names in 25 then the chance is 5 out of twenty five .

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The perimeter of a rectangular pool is more then 62 meters, and the width is at least 10 meters less then the length. Witch system of inequalities represents the possible length in meters, /, and the possible width in meters,

Answer:

15 and - 26

Step-by-step explanation:

let x and y be the 2 numbers , x > y

x + y = - 11 → (1)

x - y = 41 → (2)

Add the 2 equations term by term to eliminate y

2x = 30 ( divide both sides by 2 )

x = 15

Substitute x = 15 into either of the 2 equations and solve for y

Substituting into (1)

15 + y = - 11 ( subtract 15 from both sides )

y = - 26

The 2 numbers are 15 and - 26